The work referred to is Ireland and Rosen A classical introduction to modern number theory, GTM 84, 2nd ed.
On page 1 prime is defined as follows: a number $p$ is a prime if its only divisors are 1 and $p$. That makes 1 a prime which is surely not intended. On page 2, where primes in $\mathbb Z$ are discussed, I&R do exclude $\pm1$. On page 3 they claim Every nonzero integer can be written as a product of primes. I am prepared to believe that 1 is a product of primes, i.e., it is the product of the empty set (of primes), but I think $-1$ has to be excluded. I don't think I&R are simply being careless, so what am I missing?