I've been looking for short proofs for a few days now, but could not find one.
Today I was finally able to write my own proof and I'd be happy if someone could verify if it's true.
General assumption:
We are talking in a group with a multiplicative operation.
First we use the following theorem(1) as a given:
If $ab=ba$ and $gcd(o(a),o(b))=1$ => $o(ab)=o(a)o(b)$
Statement: If $ab=ba$ => $\exists{c} $ : o(c)=lcm(o(a),o(b))
Proof:
Let: d=$gcd(o(a),o(b))$
Then:
$lcm(o(a),o(b))=\frac{o(a)o(b)}{d}$
$gcd(\frac{o(a)}{d},o(b))=1$
Lets now look at: $a^d$ => $o(a^d)=\frac{o(a)}{d}$
Finally we arrive at: $a^{d}b$.
Since $gcd(o(a^d),o(b))=gcd(\frac{o(a)}{d},o(b))=1$
=> By theorem(1)
$o(a^db)$ must be equal to $o(a^d)o(b)$.
$o(a^d)o(b)=\frac{o(a)}{d}o(b)=lcm(o(a),o(b))$
Conclusion: $o(a^{gcd(a,b)}b)=lcm(o(a),o(b))$
Long proofs I found:
Proofs I could not understand:
If someone is interested - the location of the problem is: Chapter 10 of Pinter's Abstract Algebra - problem E5.
– Everstudent Aug 22 '20 at 21:41