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I just started learning about epsilon-delta limit proofs, and I want to know how to prove using the epsilon-delta definition of a limit that $\lim_{x\to a}(\sin x) = \sin a$

I tried and failed, so I looked it up online and found the trick is to use the identity $\sin x < x$. I cannot find any proofs that do not use this identity.

I had never seen this identity before, so I searched for its proof and found this proof that uses the mean value theorem. Again, I haven't yet learnt the mean value theorem, but according to the website, it requires a continuous (and differentiable) function $f$.

But the concept of continuity is defined using the epsilon-delta limit definition! In fact, the fact that $\sin(x)$ is continuous is exactly the statement that I'm trying to prove above: $\lim_{x\to a}(\sin x) = \sin a$

This is clearly circular reasoning. My question is how does one escape it? Either there must be a way to prove $\lim_{x\to a}(\sin x) = \sin a$ without the identity $\sin x < x$, or we need to prove $\sin x < x$ without the fact that sin is continuous. Or I suppose there could be a 3rd option? I can't find any answers on how to do it, which I find most strange...

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    There is a geometric proof that $\sin x<x$. If $x$ is acute, see the diagram here. If $x>\pi/2$, consider the graphs $y=x$ and $y=\sin x$. – A. Goodier Aug 18 '20 at 14:35
  • Duplicate of https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2024848/prove-that-lim-limitsx-to-a-sinx-sina ? – Sebastiano Aug 18 '20 at 14:36
  • Of course if you want to prove continuity, you shouldn't use the mean-value theorem to prove $\sin x \leq |x|$, because that already invokes differentiability of $\sin$ which trivially implies continuity. Anyway, to prove $\sin$ is a continuous function, you first have to provide us with the definition you're working with. Based on your previous questions, it seems you're studying from Spivak's calculus. Trigonometry is dealt with carefully later on in the book in Chapter 15. – peek-a-boo Aug 18 '20 at 14:43
  • A. Goodier, hadn't come across that one thanks, but I find that proof to be a little too informal. Given it's geometric, I don't think there could be a rigorous version? –  Aug 18 '20 at 14:43
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    Sebastiano, no it is not a duplicate. I even acknowledge that I looked up that question (it uses $\sin x < x$). –  Aug 18 '20 at 14:44
  • peek-a-boo, I'm not trying to prove sin is continuous, I'm trying to prove $\lim_{x\to a}(\sin x) = \sin a$. If you want, I can define continuity the usual way and then it's the same thing, but I'm open to other possibilities. –  Aug 18 '20 at 14:46
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    @SenZen Don't worry....:-)...Ok... – Sebastiano Aug 18 '20 at 14:47
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    @SenZen what you wrote is entirely equivalent to continuity of $\sin$, so yes that is what you're trying to prove. In any case, you first need a precise definition of $\sin x$ for all $x\in\Bbb{R}$. – peek-a-boo Aug 18 '20 at 14:47
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    @SenZen why do you think it's not rigorous? The sine function is usually defined using the unit circle. – A. Goodier Aug 18 '20 at 14:50
  • ??? You literally said: "Anyway, to prove sin is a continuous function, you first have to provide us with the definition you're working with." I.e you want me to provide the definition of continuity? Well there exist several definitions for continuity. The most common one is exactly what I wrote above, but it doesn't have to be. Anyway, I'm not talking about continuity here, I'm talking about limits. EDIT: Oh you meant Sine, ok good question. –  Aug 18 '20 at 14:50
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    yes, I meant the definition of $\sin$ – peek-a-boo Aug 18 '20 at 14:53
  • I don't think it's rigorous because it relies on the fact that the distance of the arc is less than the distance of the orthogonal projection, which I'm not ok with taking axiomatically. For context, I am studying Spivak's Calculus because I like rigour. –  Aug 18 '20 at 14:57
  • peek-a-boo is right, I need a precise definition for sine. Ok I will accept the lack of rigor for now. –  Aug 18 '20 at 15:00
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    I think this assumption can be avoided by considering areas. The area of triangle $OPQ$ is $\frac12\sin\theta$ which is smaller than the area of the circular segment $OPQ$, which is $\frac12\theta$. The circular segment must have greater area because it is convex. – A. Goodier Aug 18 '20 at 15:03
  • Related: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/760931/different-ways-to-formally-define-trigonometric-functions – Ethan Bolker Aug 18 '20 at 15:03
  • and because the triangle is the convex hull of $O,P,Q$ – A. Goodier Aug 18 '20 at 15:04
  • A. Goodier, that's a neat argument, but unfortunately it kind of just replaces one assumption with another. Now you're visually comparing the areas of the triangles, saying one is smaller than the other. That's really no more rigorous than visually comparing the distances of the line segments. –  Aug 18 '20 at 15:06
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    I am not visually comparing: one can prove that the convex hull of three points is the triangle, and one can prove that a segment of a circle (containing these three points) is convex. Therefore, the area of the triangle is less or equal than the area of the circular segment. – A. Goodier Aug 18 '20 at 15:12
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    A. Goodier. Ah yes I think you're right, and in order to prove these things you would need a Cartesian system to convert the geometry into algebra (no problem since the only definition of sine I know is based in a Cartesian coordinate system). But then again if we convert to Cartesian coordinates, one should be able to prove the inequality of the distances as well. I will try this. –  Aug 18 '20 at 15:48
  • A. Goodier. Ah yes I think you're right, and in order to prove these things you would need a Cartesian system to convert the geometry into algebra (no problem since the only definition of sine I know is based in a Cartesian coordinate system). But then again if we convert to Cartesian coordinates, one should be able to prove the inequality of the distances as well. I will try this. –  Aug 18 '20 at 15:48
  • Nice pun in the title :P – Rivers McForge Aug 18 '20 at 16:30
  • I have been unsuccessful in making the above geometric proof of sin $x < x$ rigorous. The problem is whether I use areas of circular segments as you suggested or the distance of the arc length in the actual proof, I don't actually have a definition for these. To do so would I'm guessing require integrals. And at that point I may as well define sin using integrals and go the standard way. –  Aug 19 '20 at 09:37

4 Answers4

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A very analytic approach is to start from integrals and define $\log, \exp, \sin$ and show that these are smooth, and therefore continuous, on their domains.

First we define the natural logarithm by $$ \ln x := \int_1^x \frac{dt}{t} $$ It's easy to show the logarithm laws using this definition and integration rules, and that $\ln$ is differentiable.

Then we define the exponential function as its inverse, $$ \exp := \ln^{-1} $$ By the inverse function theorem, $\exp$ is differentiable and thus continuous.

The Maclaurin/Laurent series of $\exp$ has infinite radius of convergence so $\exp$ can be extended from $\mathbb{R}$ to a smooth function on all of $\mathbb{C}.$ We can therefore define the function $\sin$ by $$ \sin x := \frac{\exp(ix)-\exp(-ix)}{2i} $$ which will also be smooth and thus continuous.

md2perpe
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I agree with the OP's logic that circular reasoning is involved. In fact, I used "Calculus 2nd Ed." by Apostol to study Calculus. In that book, Apostol first introduces the notion of the sine and cosine functions axiomatically, stating that he wanted to find functions that satisfy the following 4 axioms:

(1) Sine and cosine functions are defined everywhere on the real line.

(2) Special values: $\cos 0 = \sin(\pi/2) = 1, \;cos \,\pi = -1.$

(3) $\cos(y - x) = \cos y \cos x + \sin y \sin x.$

(4) For $0 < x < \pi/2$:

$\displaystyle 0 < \cos x < \frac{\sin x}{x} < \frac{1}{\cos x}.$

Apostol subsequently:
(a)
Demonstrated geometrically that the traditional notion of sine and cosine satisfies the above axioms as long as $\sin x, \,\cos x$ is interpreted as $\sin x$ radians, $\cos x$ radians : where $2\pi$ radians = $360^{\circ}.$

(b)
Demonstrated that all of the other trignometric identities, including those involving continuity, differentiation, integration, and taylor series of sine and cosine flow from these axioms.

....................

If I understand the OP's query correctly, he wants to establish that the sine function is continuous everywhere, without the benefit of axiom (4), above.

It is very difficult for me to determine whether this is possible; it is very difficult to precisely determine what subsequent results ulimately require axiom (4), above.

Perhaps the real question is - what is the intended solution? I will take a stab at it. In my attempt (below), I am assuming that the sine function is continuous at $x = 0.$ It could easily be argued, in light of what the OP is being asked to prove, that this assumption is unwarranted.

To the best of my knowledge, one of the consequences of axioms (1) through (3) above is [i.e. axiom (4) not used here]:

(5) $\displaystyle \sin x - \sin a = 2 \sin\left(\frac{x - a}{2}\right) \times \cos\left(\frac{x + a}{2}\right).$
Since the cosine function is a bounded function [i.e. for all $\theta, |\cos \theta| \leq 1|$],
(5) implies that $|\sin x - \sin a| \leq 2 \left|\sin\left(\frac{x - a}{2}\right)\right|.$

It seems to me that the assignment is to show that for all $\epsilon > 0,$ there exists a $\delta > 0$ such that
$0 < |x - a| < \delta \Rightarrow |(\sin x) - (\sin a)| < \epsilon.$

Choose $\delta > 0$ so that $\sin (\delta/2) < \epsilon/2.$
Since the the sine function is assumed continuous at $x = 0,$ this means that
(6) if $|(x - a)| < \delta,$ then $|\sin\left(\frac{x - a}{2}\right)| < \sin (\delta/2) < \epsilon/2$
as required.

Addendum

In reviewing my attempt above, I noticed that I forgot to add that (to the best of my knowledge) one of the other consequences of axioms (1) through (3) [i.e. axiom (4) again unused] is that
$\sin^2(\theta) + \cos^2(\theta) = 1.$

This consequence supports the assumption that the cosine function is bounded by $\pm 1.$

Addendum -2

Although the reasoning around (6) is doable, my presentation here was also careless.

Since the sine function is assumed continuous at $\theta = 0,$ there exists a neighborhood
around $(\theta = 0)$ such that $\alpha$ inside of this neighborhood implies that
$|\sin(\alpha/2)| < \sin(\delta/2).$

Therefore, $(x-a)$ must be constrained to be in this neighborhood.

user2661923
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We can do this with trigonometric identities. Based on the angle addition identity $$\sin(x + \delta) = \sin(x) \cos(\delta) + \cos(x) \sin(\delta),$$ it suffices to prove continuity of $\sin(x)$ and $\cos(x)$ as $x \to 0$. Not only that, but since $\sin(-x) = -\sin(x)$ and $\cos(-x) = \cos(x)$, it suffices to prove right-continuity as $x \to 0^+$.

We are also going to use the property that $\sin(x)$ is increasing on $[0, \pi/2)$ and $\cos(x)$ is decreasing on the same interval, that $\sin(0) = 0$, $\cos(0) = 1$, and that $\sin(\pi/4) = \cos(\pi/4) = \sqrt{2}/2.$

So let's say you give me a value of $\epsilon > 0$, and you want me to find a value of $\delta > 0$ so that $\sin([0, \delta)) \subseteq [0, \epsilon)$. Because $\sin(x)$ is increasing, it suffices to find $\delta$ so that $\sin(\delta) < \epsilon$. Starting from $x = \pi/4$, I can repeatedly use the half-angle identity $$\sin \left( \frac{x}{2} \right) = \sqrt{\frac{1 - \cos(x)}{2}} = \sqrt{1 - \cos^2(x)} \sqrt{\frac{1}{2(1 + \cos(x))}} = \sin(x) \sqrt{\frac{1}{2(1 + \cos(x))}}.$$

On $[0, \pi/4]$, $\sqrt{2}/2 \leq \cos(x) \leq 1$. Since $\sqrt{2}/2 > 7/18$, we have $2(1 + \cos(x)) \geq 2(1 + 7/18) = 25/9$ in this range, which implies

\begin{align*} \sin \left( \frac{x}{2} \right) &\leq \frac{3}{5} \sin(x), \\ \sin \left( \frac{x}{2^n} \right) &\leq \left( \frac{3}{5} \right)^n \sin(x), \ \end{align*}

for any $x \in [0, \pi/4]$. Therefore, if you tell me $\epsilon$, I can always find a value of $N$ so that $\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}\left( \frac{3}{5} \right)^N < \epsilon$, and then my value of $\delta$ is $\frac{\pi}{4*2^N} = \frac{\pi}{2^{N+2}}$. This proves that $\lim_{x \to 0^+} \sin(x) = 0$.

Because $\cos(x) = \sqrt{1 - \sin^2(x)}$, it also follows that $$\lim_{x \to 0^+} \cos(x) = \lim_{x \to 0^+} \sqrt{1 - \sin^2(x)} = \sqrt{1 - 0^2} = 1,$$ and we have the needed right-continuity of $\sin(x)$ and $\cos(x)$ at $x = 0$. QED.

  • "We are also going to use the property that sin x is increasing...". It could be argued that this is simply a disguised form of the assumption that the sine function is continuous at $x=0.$ I would be curious to know your reaction to my answer, which is also posted on this webpage. Please address a reaction to me re @..., so I will be notified. – user2661923 Aug 18 '20 at 20:03
  • On 2nd thought, I must admit that the assumption that sine function is strictly increasing in a neighborhood around 0 is not the same as assuming that the sine function is continuous in a neighborhood around 0. However, based on the first 3 of my axioms, is there a way to demonstrate that the sine function is strictly increasing in a neighborhood around 0? – user2661923 Aug 18 '20 at 21:02
  • Maybe the fact that sine is increasing doesn't require continuity, but it does require a derivative (derivative is positive = increasing), and the derivative is defined as a limit. Proving that limit is cos (derivative of sin is cos) I think would run into the same problems as the original question. –  Aug 19 '20 at 09:45
  • The fact that sine is increasing does not require the use of derivatives, lol. This is SOHCAHTOA. – Rivers McForge Aug 19 '20 at 15:41
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It is really simple to justify that $sin$ is continuous at zero with the definition after taking $\delta = \varepsilon$. Once you did that, Formula (5) in @user2661923 (above) post will take you to a nice formal justification of continuity of $sin$ (using that $cos$ is bounded).

astro
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    I am intrigued by your answer. Could you elaborate on how axioms (1) through (3) in my answer can be used to show that either the sine function or the cosine function is continuous at $x=0?$ – user2661923 Aug 18 '20 at 19:11
  • The only way you could justify sin or cos is continuous at 0 with $\delta = \epsilon$ is by using the sin $x < x$ identity! –  Aug 19 '20 at 09:29
  • True. I lost focus about the OP wanted a proof without using that identity. In any case, it comes straightforwardly from the definition of sine and the trigonometrical circle (if he wants to know how to prove it). – astro Aug 19 '20 at 12:55