Let $(M, g)$ be a complete Riemannian Manifold of dimension $d$ and let $(x_n)$ be a sequence in $\Omega = \{x \in C^1([0, 1], \ M): \ x(0) = p, \quad x(1) = q, \quad \dot{x}(0) = v, \quad \dot{x}(1) = w \}$ such that $g(\dot{x}_n, \dot{x}_n)$ is uniformly bounded. I've recently read and proven that there exists a subsequence—say $(x_{n_k})$—which converges uniformly to a continuous curve $x: [0, 1] \to M$ with $x(0) = p$ and $x(1) = q$ (see my previous question here).
However, the paper I'm reading goes on to say that "the boundedness of $g(\dot{x}_n, \dot{x}_n)$ also implies that $x$ is of Sobolev class $H^1$ and that the convergence of $(x_{n_k})$ to $x$ is weak in the $H^1$ sense." For the sake of consistency, they've defined $H^1([0, 1], M)$ as the space of curves $\gamma: [0, 1] \to M$ such that, if $(U, \phi)$ is a local coordinate chart on $M$ and $I \subset [0, 1]$ closed is such that $\gamma(I) \subset U$, then $\phi \circ \gamma \in H^1(I, \mathbb{R}^d)$. I.e., all local representatives of $\gamma$ are continuous with weak derivative in $L^2([0,1], \mathbb{R}^d)$.
This goes a bit over my head, and all attempts at consulting the literature thus far have failed. I'm hoping that someone could explain why this is true. My thoughts are below.
Given the definition of $H^1$, it seems wise to work within charts and then (hopefully) glue everything together nicely in the end. To that end, choose a finite partition of $[0, 1]$, say $I_j$, and a corresponding family of charts $(U_j, \phi_j)$ covering the image of $x$ such that for sufficiently large $n$ we have $x_{n}(I_j) \subset U_j$. By construction, $\phi_j \circ x_{n} \in C^1(I_j, \mathbb{R^d})$. As far as I understand, $$||\phi_j \circ x_n||_{H^1} = ||\phi_j \circ x_n||_{L^2} + ||(\phi_j \circ x_n)'||_{L^2} = \left(\int_0^1 ||(\phi_j \circ x_n)(t)||^2_{\mathbb{R}^d}dt\right)^{1/2} + \left(\int_0^1 ||(\phi_j \circ x_n)'(t)||^2_{\mathbb{R}^d}dt\right)^{1/2}$$
If we can bound both integrals on the right independent of $n$, then since $H^1$ is a Hilbert space there would exist a weakly convergent subsequence. However, I'm not sure how to bring the uniform boundedness of the Riemannian metric in, how to conclude that the weak convergence is to the same $x$ as before (I imagine the two are related), or how to glue it all back together.