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Page 88 of No-Nonsense Classical Mechanics states the Euler-Lagrange equation as follows:

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Questions: I'm having trouble understanding just what the statement means.

  1. Are $\frac{\partial L}{\partial q}$ and $\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{q}}$ directional derivatives?

  2. What are the SI units of $\frac{\partial L}{\partial q}$, and won't they differ from $\frac{d}{dt} \left( \frac{\partial L}{\partial q} \right)$ due to the $\frac{d}{dt}$? If the units differ between these two terms, doesn't this equation "fail to make sense"?

user1770201
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  • The answer to (1) is that they are regular partial derivatives, you just need to understand what the notation means (which can be confusing at times), in particular what is the function, what the partial derivative symbols mean, where the derivatives are being evaluated etc. See this answer and also this answer (which addresses things in greater generality for when the Lagrangian is a function on the tangent bundle of the configuration manifold). If you need more elaboration let me know – peek-a-boo Aug 09 '20 at 06:04

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Let's suppose the units of $q$ are are $\text{u}$, which stands for "user units."

The units of $\frac{\partial L}{\partial q}$ are $\text{J}\text{u}^{-1}$ (Joules per user unit.)

The units of $\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot q}$ are Joules per (user units per second) which is $\text{J}\text{u}^{-1}\text{s}$. Hence the units of $\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot q}\right)$ are $\text{J}\text{u}^{-1}$.

You could think of them as directional derivatives, but I think it is more helpful just to think of them as partial derivatives.

Stephen Montgomery-Smith
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