When your teacher talks about $0/0$ or $\infty/\infty$ or $1^\infty$ he/she's not talking about numbers, but about functions, more precisely about limits of functions.
It's just a convenient expression, but it should not be confused with computations on simple numbers (which $\infty$ isn't, by the way).
When $1^\infty$ is referred to, it is to mean the following situation: there are two functions $f$ and $g$ defined in a neighborhood of $c$, with the properties
$\lim\limits_{x\to c} f(x)=1$
$\lim\limits_{x\to c} g(x)=\infty$ (or $-\infty$)
(of course, $c$ can also be $\infty$ or $-\infty$).
Saying that $1^\infty$ is an indeterminate form is just a mnemonic way to say that you cannot compute
$$\lim_{x\to c}f(x)^{g(x)}$$
just by saying “the base goes to $1$, so the limit is $1$ because $1^t=1$”. Indeed this can be grossly wrong as the fundamental example
$$\lim_{x\to\infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{x}\right)^{x}=e$$
shows.
Why is that? It's easy if you always write $f(x)^{g(x)}$ as $\exp(g(x)\log f(x))$ and compute the limit of $g(x)\log f(x)$, then applying the properties of the exponential function.
In the case above we'd have
$\lim\limits_{x\to c} \log f(x)=0$
$\lim\limits_{x\to c} g(x)=\infty$ (or $-\infty$)
so the limit
$$\lim_{x\to c}g(x)\log f(x)$$
is in the other $\infty\cdot0$ indeterminate form (that you should know). Why is it “indeterminate”? Because we have many instances of that form where the limit is not predictable by simply doing a (nonsense) multiplication:
\begin{gather}
\lim_{x\to 0+}x\cdot\frac{1}{x}=1\\
\lim_{x\to 0+}x^2\cdot\frac{1}{x}=0\\
\lim_{x\to 0+}x\cdot\frac{1}{x^2}=\infty
\end{gather}