Let $f: \mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N} \to \overline{\mathbb{R}}$. Then under which conditions is the expression $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\sum\limits_{m=1}^\infty f(m,n)=\sum\limits_{m=1}^\infty \lim\limits_{n\to\infty} f(m,n)$ valid?
Would anyone have a rigorous answer to this? Any proof using measure theory, or elementary calculus, is more than welcome.
I know that a very similar question has been asked here: Under what condition we can interchange order of a limit and a summation? , but I would need more detail. For example, one of the answers states that the dominated convergence theorem suffices as 'sums are just integrals with respect to the counting measure on $\mathbb{N}$'. I am unable to see how works; I don't know how this 'counting measure' can be used with the dominated convergence theorem to provide the conclusion.