Suppose there is a function $f:A\to B$ where $A,\,B\subseteq\mathbb{R}$, is there any example for this function being NOT Borel function?
Well the question came up to be when I was reading the probability theory and it states that the two random variable is independent if and only if $\mathbb{E}[f(X)g(Y)] = \mathbb{E}[f(X)]\,\mathbb{E}[g(Y)]$ for any $f,\,g$ being Borel function. This is not hard to proof but I cannot think of any function that is not Borel when the function takes real value and also provides real value. Any comment is extremely welcomed :)