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I am working on Exercise 3.24 of Rotman's algebraic topology text. It has been discussed several times on math.SE already (Discrete Normal Subgroup of a Simply Connected Topological Group. and Discrete Closed Subgroup H of a Simply Connected Topological Group G isomorphic to fundamental group of G / H., among others), but all of them use universal coverings or the homotopy lifting axiom, neither of which I've learned yet.

The problem is to show that if $G$ is a simply connected topological group, and if $H$ is a discrete closed normal subgroup, then $\pi_1(G/H,1)\cong H$.

I have worked on this for a while now and all I have left is to show that I can lift $f:[0,1]\to G/H$ into a function $\tilde f:[0,1]\to G$, but I'm not sure how to prove this lifting. In particular, what I'd like to show is the following statement: For every $g_0\in H$, given a loop $f:[0,1]\to G/H$ with $f(0)=f(1)=1$, there is a function $\tilde f:[0,1]\to G$ with $\tilde f(0)=g_0$ such that $\tilde f(t)H=f(t)$.

I think I'm supposed to use some open neighborhood $U$ of $1$ such that the family of $hU$'s, where $h\in H$, is disjoint. I can show that $U$ exists, and I think that the condition on $U$ is supposed to make the natural map $v:G\to G/H$ a homeomorphism on $U$, but I can't prove that this is true.

If somebody can give me a hint on how to continue, that'd be great. I know that this is related to covering spaces, etc., but I'd like to try solving this without using those ideas, if possible.

Also, in the book, the hint is to generalize a proof (it says a proof of 3.16, but if you're looking at the book, I'm actually trying to generalize Lemma 3.14). It's a bit long to reproduce here, so if somebody just can explain what $v(U)$ looks like (is it all of $G/H$? I think it might not be, but I'm not sure), that'd be good enough for now.

boink
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    You meant $g_0\in H$ not $g_0\in G$ (otherwise $\tilde{f}(0)H=g_0H\neq H=f(0)$). – user10354138 Jul 28 '20 at 05:26
  • Oh, yes, good point; edited now! – boink Jul 28 '20 at 05:54
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    You say you'd like to solve the problem without covering spaces etc., and that's a good ambition. Nonetheless, after you're all done working out your own understanding of the proof, I think that it would be worthwhile to crack open a covering space chapter of any algebraic topology book and compare your work to that material. I think you will discover that your proofs are, basically, a development of covering space theory. – Lee Mosher Jul 28 '20 at 15:33
  • Yep, for sure! I'm working through Rotman's book and he eventually does talk about covering spaces, but this problem was supposed to be doable without using the theory, which was the main reason I was asking for this. :) – boink Jul 28 '20 at 16:44

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You can prove the homotopy lifting lemma in this special case, not sure if that is what you are looking for.

So you know that your neighbourhood $U\ni 1$ exists. Let's write $V=v(U)$. There is nothing special about $1$ by translating $U$. Also, we may assume $U$ is connected.

We know $v\vert U$ is continuous (restricting a continuous), open ($v$ being open map and $U$ is open) and bijective $U\to V$, so is a homeomorphism.

Digression: $V$ need not be the whole of $G/H$. For example, take $G=\mathbb{R}$ and $H=2\pi\mathbb{Z}$, $G\to G/H\cong S^1$ by $t\mapsto e^{it}$. You can't have the whole of $S^1$ homeomorphic to an open subset of $\mathbb{R}$ since there are no open nonempty compact subsets of $\mathbb{R}$.


Now $V\bar{g}$ is open for all $\bar{g}\in G/H$ and they form an open cover of $G/H$. So $$ \{f^{-1}(V\bar{g})\mid g\in G, \bar{g}:=gH\} $$ forms an open cover of $[0,1]$ by open intervals. As $[0,1]$ is connected compact, there is a finite subcover of open overlapping subintervals.

Now we lift $f$ to $\tilde{f}$ on each: Starting with $0\in [0,1]$, $0=:t_1\in I_1\subseteq f^{-1}(V\overline{g_1})$. Then $v^{-1}V\overline{g_1}$ is a disjoint union of translates of $U$, so select the one that contains $g_0$. For every $t\in I_1$, we select $\tilde{f}(t)$ to be the unique element in this translate such that $v(\tilde{f}(t))=f(t)$ (i.e., $\tilde{f}(t)H=f(t)$). Since the intervals are overlapping, select $I_2\subseteq f^{-1}(V\overline{g_2})$, $I_2\cap I_1\neq\varnothing$, $t_2\in I_1\cap I_2$ and continue. You can check $\tilde{f}\colon[0,1]\to G$ is well-defined.

user10354138
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  • Oh, wow, this is perfect. Thanks so much! – boink Jul 28 '20 at 16:45
  • @user10354138 This is the key point that I'm missing: how do we know that the inverse images $f^{-1}(V\bar{g})$ are open intervals themselves and not just unions of open intervals (being open sets in $[0,1]$), since in general inverse images of connected sets aren't themselves connected? This feels like it should be specific to the construction we've made rather than a general result. – march Feb 24 '24 at 16:58