I am self-studying some content on ring theory.
I came across this question in which I am supposed to prove that $\langle x^2+1\rangle $ is maximal ideal of $\Bbb{Q}[x]$.
Let us define $\phi : \Bbb{Q}[x]\rightarrow \Bbb Q[i]$
as $\phi(f(x)) = f(i)$
Here $\Bbb{Q}[x]$ is a polynomial ring iwith coefficients from $\Bbb{Q}$ in variable $x$ and $\Bbb{Q}[i]$ is a poynomial ring with variables from $\Bbb{Q}$ in variable $x$.
We know that the latter is a ring.
I have proven that $\phi$ is an onto ring homomomorphism with Kernel = $\langle x^2+1\rangle$.
So by the Fundamental theorem of Homomorphism, we have that
$\frac{\Bbb{Q}[x]}{\langle x^2+1\rangle}\simeq \Bbb Q[i]$.
Is this working correct? Now to prove my desired claim, should I prove that $\Bbb{Q}[i]$ is a field?.
If I am able to do that,them I think I will be done.
So, please help!