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I am self studying from the book Elementary Real and Complex Analysis but need some help with the following exercise.

Let $A'$ denote the set of all limit points of a given subset $A$ of a metric space $M$ and let $A^{(n)}=(A^{(n-1)})'$. Given any $n$, construct a set $A$ on the real line such that $A^{(n)}$ is nonempty while $A^{(n+1)}$ is empty.

First, I noticed that for $A= \{\frac{1}{M} \mid M \in \mathbb{N}\}$, then $A'=\{0\}$ and $A'' = \emptyset$. Therefore, I proposed the set $A=\{\frac{1}{m_1} + \cdots + \frac{1}{m_n} \mid m_i \in \mathbb{N} \}$ in order to reach the simple case at some step. While it is clear that any sum $\frac{1}{m_1} + \cdots + \frac{1}{m_{n-1}}$ is a limit point of $A$, I cannot prove that there are not other limit points.

I also failed to prove this by induction.

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You do want to start with a simple sequence. Then make each point of the sequence the limit of another simple sequence. Then make each of the newly added points the limit of yet another simple sequence. Keep going. Here’s one way to do it all at once; I’ll leave it to you to verify the details.

For $n\ge 1$ let $\Sigma_n$ be the set of $n$-tuples of positive integers. For each $\langle k_1,\ldots,k_n\rangle\in\Sigma_n$ let

$$x_{\langle k_1,\ldots,k_n\rangle}=2^{-k_1}+2^{-(k_1+k_2)}+\ldots+2^{-(k_1+k_2+\ldots+k_n)}\;.$$

Let $L_n=\{x_{\langle k_1,\ldots,k_n\rangle}:\langle k_1,\ldots,k_n\rangle\in\Sigma_n\}$.

Finally, for $n\ge 0$ let

$$A_n=\{0\}\cup\bigcup_{k=1}^{n+1}L_k\;.$$

Show that $A_0'=\{0\}$, and $A_n'=A_{n-1}$ for $n\ge 1$.

I suggest drawing pictures of the first two or three of these sets to get a better idea of what’s going on here. You will find it useful to show that $x_{\langle k_1,\ldots,k_n,k\rangle}<x_{\langle k_1,\ldots,k_n-1\rangle}$ for all $k\ge 1$ and $k_n\ge 2$.

Brian M. Scott
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  • I think I got it. Just to make sure, the key point here is that $x_{\langle k_1,\ldots,k_n,k\rangle}<x_{\langle k_1,\ldots,k_n-1\rangle}$ implies that for $x$ between $x_{\langle k_1,\ldots,k_{n-1}\rangle}$ and $x_{\langle k_1,\ldots,k_{n-1}-1\rangle}$, $x$ is a limit point of $A_n$ iff it is a limit point of the simple sequence of all the $x_{\langle k_1,\ldots,k_{n-1}, m\rangle}$. Am I right? – XxS4NN4SxX Jul 18 '20 at 21:08
  • @XxS4NN4SxX: Yes, the idea is to make each point $x$ in one of the sequences the limit of a simple sequence from the right that lies entirely to the left of the predecessor of $x$ in $x$’s own sequence. That way it’s easy to avoid getting unwanted limit points. – Brian M. Scott Jul 18 '20 at 21:11