I wanted to know how to approach the question of:
Given a metric on $\mathbb{R}^2$ does a continuous map $f:\mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}^2 $ with the following property:
$$f([0,1]\times[0,1]) = \mathbb{R}^2 $$
exist ?
I currently am a little clueless on how to think about it. I would guess we can work with the map of $f^{-1}$ on our map. But again not really sure. A little pointer in the right direction might do the trick though.
Any help is greatly appreciated.