Suppose we have a list $(X_1, \dots, X_n)$ of continuous random variables with support $[0,1]$ (not necessarily independent) .
I am wondering whether, as $t \rightarrow 0$, the probability of
$$\left[\prod_{i=1}^n X_i \leq t\right] \qquad (a)$$
tends towards the probability of
$$\left[X_i \leq t^{1/n} \text{ for all } i \in \{1,\dots, n\}\right]. \qquad (b)$$
So just to be clear, my question is whether
$$\lim_{t\rightarrow 0} \frac{P\left(\prod\limits_{i=1}^n X_i \leq t\right)}{P\left(X_i \leq t^{1/n} \text{ for all } i \in \{1,\dots, n\}\right)} = 1. \qquad (q)$$
What makes me think the probabilities of (a) and (b) may be identical in the limit (in the sense of (q)) is that if we have (a) but not (b), then we must have
$$[X_i \leq t^{1/(n-1)} \text{ for at least } (n-1) \text{ of the } i \in \{1,\dots, n\}]. \qquad (c)$$
Intuitively, it seems that, as $t$ approaches $0$, the probability that (c) is true goes to $0$ much faster than the probability that (b) is true, which would give (b) a dominating first-order effect in the limit. But maybe my intuition is misguided and even if it isn't, I am struggling to spell this out and prove it formally.
(If (q) only held under "minor" regularity condition on the joint distribution of the $X_i$'s I wouldn't mind learning about this either :))