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Let $ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_{n}x^{n} $ be a power series. prove that

$ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_{n}x^{n},\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\left(n+1\right)a_{n+1}x^{n} $

has the same convergence radius.

So, let $ \limsup\sqrt[n]{|a_{n}|}=\beta $

It follows that $ \limsup\sqrt[n+1]{|a_{n+1}|}=\beta $ (Im not sure about this argument, we'll sign it as (*) )

Its enough to show that $ \limsup\sqrt[n]{\left(n+1\right)|a_{n+1}|}=\beta $

Let $ \limsup\sqrt[n]{\left(n+1\right)|a_{n+1}|}=\gamma $ and we'll show that $\beta=\gamma $

From the assumption above, we can find a subsequence such that $ \lim_{k\to\infty}\sqrt[n_{k}]{|a_{n_{k}}|}=\beta$

And we can notice that :

$ \lim_{k\to\infty}\sqrt[n_{k}]{\left(n_{k}+1\right)|a_{n_{k}+1}|}=\lim_{k\to\infty}\left(n_{k}+1\right)^{\frac{1}{n_{k}}}\cdot\lim_{k\to\infty}\left(|a_{n_{k}+1}|^{\frac{1}{n_{k}+1}}\right)^{\frac{n_{k}+1}{n_{k}}} $

and because of (*)

$ \lim_{k\to\infty}\left(n_{k}+1\right)^{\frac{1}{n_{k}}}\cdot\lim_{k\to\infty}\left(|a_{n_{k}+1}|^{\frac{1}{n_{k}+1}}\right)^{\frac{n_{k}+1}{n_{k}}}=\beta $

So $ \beta \leq \gamma $

Now, we'll take a subsequence such that $ \lim_{j\to\infty}\sqrt[n_{j}]{\left(n_{j}+1\right)|a_{n_{j}+1}}=\gamma $

And we'll notice that

$ \gamma=\lim_{j\to\infty}\sqrt[n_{j}]{\left(n_{j}+1\right)|a_{n_{j}+1}|}=\lim_{j\to\infty}\left(n_{j}+1\right)^{\frac{1}{n_{j}}}\cdot\lim_{j\to\infty}|a_{n_{j}+1}|^{\frac{1}{n_{j}}}=\lim_{j\to\infty}\left(|a_{n_{j}+1}|^{\frac{1}{n_{j}+1}}\right)^{\frac{n_{j+1}}{n_{j}}}=\gamma $

Therefore, because of (*)

$ \lim_{j\to\infty}|a_{n_{j}+1}|^{\frac{1}{n_{j}+1}}=\lim_{j\to\infty}|a_{n_{j}}|^{\frac{1}{n_{j}}}=\gamma $

And thus $ \gamma \leq \beta $ and we get that $ \gamma = \beta $

Now everything depend's on the validity of (*) So I hope you could tell me if it's okay and maybe help my justify it.

I feel like it's abuse of notation because $ a_{n_{k+1}}\neq a_{n_{k}+1} $ so I dont know if my argument holds.

Thanks in advance

FreeZe
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2 Answers2

1

You don't say where your indices start, so I pick $1$. Altering this is easy.

$$ \left( \sqrt[n]{|a_n|} \right)_{n \geq 1} = (|a_1|, \sqrt{a_2}, \sqrt[3]{a_3}, \dots ) \text{ and } $$ $$ \left( \sqrt[n+1]{|a_{n+1}|} \right)_{n \geq 1} = (\sqrt{a_2}, \sqrt[3]{a_3}, \dots ) \text{,} $$ so the second sequence is the subsequence of the first sequence formed by deleting the first term. The limit you ask about is indifferent to any finite segment of the sequence not containing a maximum of the sequence, so the two limits agree as long as the first term is not a maximal term of the sequence.

Eric Towers
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  • So my proof is fine? – FreeZe Jul 12 '20 at 21:05
  • @Waizman : The Question does not ask about the proof, it asks about the seuqence and the subsequence having identical $\lim\sup$. – Eric Towers Jul 12 '20 at 21:08
  • I know. But during the proof I used this argument on subsequences, and for thouse $n_k+1$ is not subsequence of $n_k. So can you tell if my proof is wrong? – FreeZe Jul 12 '20 at 21:14
  • @Waizman : It is not the case that the $\lim \sup$ of a subsequence is necessarily the same as the $\lim \sup$ of the sequence. Consider the even index and odd index halves of the sequence that alternates between $0$ and $1$. – Eric Towers Jul 12 '20 at 22:09
  • @Waizman : Further, it appears that your question is not present in your Question, so I'm not sure what sort of Answer you believe is appropriate for the Question as written. – Eric Towers Jul 12 '20 at 22:11
  • Ofcourse. I ment that I dont know if I can claim the same argument as you explained why the limits are rhe same in your main comment. Because $ a_n_{k+1} \neq a_{n_k+1} $ – FreeZe Jul 12 '20 at 22:13
  • I just want to know if this proof is fine, Eric. – FreeZe Jul 12 '20 at 22:15
  • @Waizman : The Question is not tagged "proof-verification" and the closest approach to an actual question in the Question is "Now everything depend's on the validity of (*) So I hope you could tell me if it's okay and maybe help my justify it." This Answer is completely responsive to the Question as written. – Eric Towers Jul 13 '20 at 16:28
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Based on this general result (the equality part), we indeed have:

$$ \limsup_{n\to\infty}\sqrt[n]{(n+1)|a_{n+1}|}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\sqrt[n]{n+1}\limsup_{n\to\infty}\sqrt[n]{|a_{n+1}|} $$

You are basically attempting to prove it by choosing special (their limits are hitting the $\limsup$'s) subsequences on both sides, but in the process you set $\limsup$ of a sequence to $\limsup$ of one of its non-special sequences (which is wrong as stated in the comments on the other answer). The limit on non-special sequences might not even exist. I think you do this by assuming that the special subsequence for the product of sequences are also special for the individual sequences (and vice versa).

Slightly cleaner application of the general result:

$$ \sum_{n\geq 0} (n+1)a_{n+1} x^n = \sum_{n\geq 1} na_n x^{n-1} $$

The convergence radius of $ \sum_{n\geq 1} na_n x^{n-1} $ is the same as the one of

$$ \sum_{n\geq 1} na_n x^{n} = x \sum_{n\geq 1} na_n x^{n-1}. $$

Then:

$$ \limsup_{n\to\infty}\sqrt[n]{n|a_{n}|}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\sqrt[n]{n}\limsup_{n\to\infty}\sqrt[n]{|a_n|} = \limsup_{n\to\infty}\sqrt[n]{|a_n|}.$$

ir7
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  • Thanks for your comment. Can you be please more specific? which of sequences I defined may not have a limit? – FreeZe Jul 12 '20 at 23:51
  • How do you know that $\lim_{j\to\infty}\sqrt[n_{j}]{\left(n_{j}+1\right)|a_{n_{j}+1}|}=\lim_{j\to\infty}\left(n_{j}+1\right)^{\frac{1}{n_{j}}}\cdot\lim_{j\to\infty}|a_{n_{j}+1}|^{\frac{1}{n_{j}}}$? Third limit might not exist. – ir7 Jul 12 '20 at 23:55
  • From the assumption $ \lim_{j\to\infty}\sqrt[n_{j}]{\left(n_{j}+1\right)|a_{n_{j}+1}|}=\gamma $ So, $ \lim_{j\to\infty}\left(n_{j}+1\right)^{\frac{1}{n_{j}}}|a_{n_{j}+1}|^{\frac{1}{n_{j}}}=\gamma $ and if $ \lim_{j\to\infty}|a_{n_{j}+1}|^{\frac{1}{n_{j}}} $ does not exists, we'll get a contradiction because the former limit wouldnt exist – FreeZe Jul 13 '20 at 00:06
  • because $ \lim_{j\to\infty}\left(n_{j}+1\right)^{\frac{1}{n_{j}}}=1 $ – FreeZe Jul 13 '20 at 00:08
  • $\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} 1/n \cdot \sin(n) $ exists, but one of the components doesn't have limit. – ir7 Jul 13 '20 at 00:34
  • But none of them has the limit 1. Can you give a counter example for 2 sequences that one of them converges to 1? – FreeZe Jul 13 '20 at 07:18
  • I can't. Division formula says (limit of non-zero sequence in denominator is non-zero) that you are right. – ir7 Jul 13 '20 at 14:18
  • So, I guess the follow-up question is: what do you do with $\lim_{j\to\infty}|a_{n_{j}+1}|^{\frac{1}{n_{j}}}$? – ir7 Jul 13 '20 at 14:21