I am studying this paper on black holes quasi-normal modes, in particular I am reading section III-E (page 10). It deals with the numerical integration of the equation:
$$4\dfrac{\partial^2}{\partial u\partial v} \Phi(u,v) +V(u,v) \Phi(u,v)=0$$
it proposes to use the following formula:
$$\Phi(N)=\Phi(W)+\Phi(E)-\Phi(S)-\dfrac{h^2}{8} V(S)\left[ \Phi(W)+\Phi(E) \right]$$
to calulate the function $\Phi$, where the points W, E, N and S are given by: $S=(u.v)$, $W=(u+h,v)$, $E=(u,v+h)$ and $N=(u+h,v+h)$.
I do not understand this method: it seems to me that I need to know the form of the function $\Phi$ in advance in order to calculate it in the various points, but as far as I understand the function $\Phi$ should be the result of the calculations.
Where am I wrong?