I was reading an elementary number theory text looking to enhance my knowledge and I came across the relatively simple task of proving there existed infinitely many primes of the form $4k-1$ (of course, without Dirichlet). My very elementary proof is as follows:
Assume there exist only $n$ finitely many such primes: then let $m=4(p_1p_2\cdots p_n)-1$. This is a (odd) number of the form $4k-1$ and thus must have factors of form $4k-1$, for otherwise the number would be of the form $4k+1$.
Is there such a simple generalization of this proof? I can see that this proof does not work for some, such as the $4k+1$ case found here. For instance, please provide a similar proof that there exists infinitely many primes of the form $15k+4$ (randomly chosen numbers). Thanks.