I believe I need to show that $\frac{q!}{x!(q-x)!} = aq $ where $a\in \mathbb{Z}$ How can I show this?
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1What are your thoughts so far? – K.defaoite Jul 04 '20 at 02:55
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4Does this answer your question? Proving prime $p$ divides $\binom{p}{k}$ for $k\in{1,\ldots,p-1}$ – Mor A. Jul 04 '20 at 03:26
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There is the identity ${n \choose k } = {n \choose n-k}$, which means we may assume without loss of generality that $q - x \leq x$. Then clearly the fraction is $\dfrac{q(q-1)\cdots (q-x+1)}{(q-x)(q-x-1) \cdots (1)}$.
Since $q$ is a prime number, you cannot write it as a multiple of two proper factors greater than $1$. Notice that since $q-x \lt q$ (because by assumption $x \gt 1$), the only way to "divide out" the factor of $q$ in the numerator would be to assemble (compositely) $q$ from a number of smaller factors, but this can't be done by our first sentence in this paragraph.
$\square$

Daniel Donnelly
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