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What is the quotient of the absolute value metric in $\Bbb Z[\frac16]^+/\langle2,3\rangle$?

I'm somewhat baffled by Wikipedia's definition of a quotient pseudometric. How does it apply to the example given below of $\Bbb Z[\frac16]^+/\langle2,3\rangle,d'$?

From Wikipedia I have the definition:

If $M$ is a metric space with metric $d$, and $\sim$ is an equivalence relation on $M$, then we can endow the quotient set $M/{\sim}$ with the following (pseudo)metric. Given two equivalence classes $[x]$ and $[y]$, we define $$ d'([x],[y]) = \inf\{d(p_1,q_1)+d(p_2,q_2)+\dotsb+d(p_{n},q_{n})\} $$ where the infimum is taken over all finite sequences $(p_1, p_2, \dots, p_n)$ and $(q_1, q_2, \dots, q_n)$ with $[p_1]=[x], [q_n]=[y], [q_i]=[p_{i+1}], i=1,2,\dots, n-1$. In general this will only define a pseudometric, i.e. $d'([x],[y])=0$ does not necessarily imply that $[x]=[y]$. However for nice equivalence relations (e.g., those given by gluing together polyhedra along faces), it is a metric.

In particular I'm confused where $n$ comes from and why it's finite, when the cosets may be infinite, and how to construct the set of finite sums from which the infimum is taken. For example, if I start with the simplest possible case by assuming $n=2$ I'm struggling to define $p_2$. It looks like maybe it's saying take the shortest sequence of stepping stones from one coset to the other. The way the indexing of $p$ and $q$ coincides is confusing me. I think an example will help me best. So how do I calculate this pseudometric for my example below?

FWIW I'm aware that under the absolute value metric $d$ the cosets of this quotient contain numbers $x,y$ arbitrarily close to each other and this may yield $\forall [x]\forall [y]:d'([x],[y])=0$ but I still want to understand the metric and calculate it.

Let $M=\Bbb Z[\frac16]^+$ be the set (and multiplicative monoid) of positive rational numbers whose primes greater than $3$ have non-negative powers.

Let us assume for the sake of understanding the quotient pseudometric that $M,d$ is a metric space where $d(x,y)$ is the absolute value metric $d=\lvert x-y\rvert$.

Let $Q=M/\langle2,3\rangle$, i.e. the quotient monoid obtained using the coset of powers of $2$ and $3$: $\langle2,3\rangle=\{2^m3^n:m,n\in\Bbb Z\}$. The sets in $Q$ are of the form $x\cdot\langle2,3\rangle$ where $x$ is some 5-rough positive integer.

What does the quotient pseudometric $d'=d/{\sim}$ look like on $Q$?

For example, what are

  • $d([1],[5])$
  • $d([1],[13])$
  • $d([13],[85])$ and how are they calculated?

1 Answers1

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If your metric is based on absolute value, $d(x,y)=|x-y|$, then the pseudometric you get here is trivial, in other words $d([x],[y])=0$ for all $[x],[y]\in Q$. You don't need to use longer and longer sequences of "stepping stones" $[p_i]$. Let's fix an integer $m>0$. Set $$ p_1=x/6^m\in[x]\quad\text{and}\quad q_1=y/6^m\in[y]. $$ Then $d(p_1,q_1)=|x-y|/6^m$. Because we can choose $m$ as large as we wish, this already implies that the infimum is zero.


You need those sequences of stepping stones for things like the following. Let $X=[0,1]$ with the usual metric. Let $\sim$ be the equivalence relation that, for all integers $n>1$, collapses all the intervals of the form $[1/n,1/(n-1))$ to a single point. What's the (pseudo)distance $d([0],[1])$?

  • We have $1/2\sim 99/100$. Consequently, using the sequences $p_1=0$, $p_2=99/100$, $q_1=1/2$, $q_2=1$ to shorten one of the steps: $$d([0],[1])\le d(0,1/2)+d(99/100,1)\le 1/2+1/100.$$ This is less than the original distance $d(0,1)=1$ because we can equate $1/2$ with $99/100$ and instead of $1\to1/2\to0$ we can reroute $1\to99/100, 1/2\to0$.
  • But we also have $1/3\sim49/100$, so with $p_1=0$, $p_2=49/100$, $p_3=99/100$, $q_1=1/3$, $q_2=1/2$, $q_3=1$ we get $$d([0],[1])\le d(0,1/3)+d(49/100,1/2)+d(99/100,1)=1/3+1/100+1/100.$$

By using longer and longer sequences of steps and moving the representatives even closer to the end points of the equivalence classes (i.e. distances less than $1/100$ that I used above), it is easy to see that the infimum over all sequences of stepping stones becomes $0$. In other words, we get $d([0],[1])=0$.

Jyrki Lahtonen
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    The example with sequences of stepping stones could be more lucid. I'm afraid I'm not good at writing that. Anyway, the idea is that we take advantage of our ability to move closer to another point by first moving to another equivalence class, then moving closer to the destination wiithin that class etc. – Jyrki Lahtonen Jun 24 '20 at 11:38
  • Thank-you. So it looks intuitively like this often corresponds with $d''=\inf{d(x,y):x\in [x], y\in[y]}$ (and does so in this case), but there are some tricky cases where that could fail to obey the axioms so we use the more complex definition, is that right? – it's a hire car baby Jun 24 '20 at 12:15
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    Correct, @samerivertwice. Your formula $d''$ would fail to obey the triangle inequality. In my example space $d''(0,1)=1$, $d''(1/2,1)=0$, $d''(0,1/2)=1/2$ because the equivalence class $[1/2]$ comes arbitrarily close to $1$. – Jyrki Lahtonen Jun 24 '20 at 12:50