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How do I prove this statement: Let $V$ be an unitary vector space over $\Bbb C$, $(,)$ be an inner product on $V$ and $\Bbb A$ operator $V\rightarrow V$. Then $(\Bbb Av,v)=0$ if and only if $\Bbb A=0$.

I know that on $\Bbb R$ this does not apply, since we are searching for an operator that assigns to my vector a vector that is orthogonal and so every orthogonal projection on a subspace of $\Bbb R$ can be this operator. But how is this possible on $\Bbb C$? Thank you.

user74200
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1 Answers1

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This proof is (sort of) from Advanced Linear Algebra by Steven Roman.

Let $V$ be a complex inner product space and let $A$ be a linear operator on $V$ with the given property. For all $v\in V$ and $r\in\mathbb{C}$ we have \begin{align} 0 &= \langle A(rv+Av),rv+Av \rangle \\ &= |r|^2\langle Av,v\rangle + \langle A^2v,Av\rangle + r\langle Av, Av\rangle + \overline{r}\langle A^2 v, v\rangle \\ &= r\langle Av, Av\rangle + \overline{r}\langle A^2 v, v\rangle. \end{align} Set $r=1$ to get $$\langle Av, Av\rangle + \langle A^2 v, v\rangle=0,$$ and set $r=i$ to get $$\langle Av, Av\rangle - \langle A^2 v, v\rangle=0.$$ Therefore $\Vert Av \Vert^2 = 0$.

wj32
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