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I am reading Logic of Mathematics by Adamowicz and Zbierski and there is no inference rule called Existential Elimination / Instantiation in this text. Incidentally, one of the exercises is to show that $\vdash F(t/x)\to \exists x F$.

However, the third axiom of logic (in this text) is $$\forall F\to F(t/x)$$

and my text also defines $\exists x F$ as $\neg \forall x \neg F$. In any of my previous courses on basic logic I would be allowed to infer $F(t)$ for some $t$ from $\exists x F$.

But I'm only reading this text independently (not as part of a course) so I usually use axiom three (above) whenever I want to instantiate a variable and do some wrangling.... of course I pick up these extra negation symbols. I would like to have the following inference rule $$\exists x F \Big /\therefore F(t/x)$$ or equivalently the following theorem $$\exists F \to F(t/x)$$

but I'm not sure if this is allowed or why.

Any help is appreciated, thank you. Part of my concern is what language the instantiation must occur if at all... I think the exercise below is related and maybe I can "pull back" results after expanding to $L\{c\}$... I dunno.

I proved the following exercise: Let $L\{c\}$ be an expansion of the language L by a new constant c. Show that for $F, G \in Fm(L)$ if $x$ is not a free variable in $G$ then the condition $T, \exists x F \vdash G$ in $L$ is equivalent with the condition $T, F(c/x) \vdash G$ in $L\{c\}$.

Squirtle
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  • But the rule you would like to have is obviously not sound... Are you saying that from $\exists x, F$, you are allowed to conclude $F(t/x)$ for whatever term $t$ you want? If not, how are you supposed to pick $t$? What if there are no terms at all in the language (other than variables) because there are no constant or function symbols in the language? – Alex Kruckman Jun 13 '20 at 21:02
  • I think you must be remembering wrong from your previous courses on basic logic... – Alex Kruckman Jun 13 '20 at 21:04
  • That’s fine if I am wrong. I wouldn’t be asking the question if I knew the answer. I’m quite aware that it’s not just any constant t, since if this were true then from the generalization theorem I could infer $\forall x F$. Do you have anything constructive to say? As far as my previous courses in logic... no I’m following my notes to a tee, they were also intro courses and maybe didn’t have full rigor. – Squirtle Jun 13 '20 at 23:32
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    Sorry, I was trying to be constructive. I certainly didn't mean my comments to be offensive. The way I understood your question was "I want to derive this rule or theorem for use in dealing with existential quantifiers in a particular proof system for first-order logic", and the answer is: you can't, because the rule is not sound. If I've misunderstood the question, maybe you can clarify? – Alex Kruckman Jun 13 '20 at 23:53
  • Thank you for clarifying. okay, so we cannot derive the rule. Then what is this: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Existential_instantiation As I understand, we start with $\exists x F$ in $L$ and then from that we can infer $F(c/x)$ in $L{c}$?

    But if that is so -- and I'm not sure it is -- but if that is so then can we from the exercises above (which I have already proven) is it possible to conclude $F(c/x)$ in $L{c}$?

    – Squirtle Jun 14 '20 at 00:34

1 Answers1

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In the comments, you linked to the Wikipedia page for Existential instantiation. Here, the following rule of inference is presented: Given a premise of the form $\exists x\, \varphi(x)$, conclude $\varphi(c)$, where $c$ is a new constant symbol which has not occurred earlier in the proof.

This rule is not sound. For example, suppose we have a constant symbol $d$ in the language. Let's start with the valid sentence $\exists x\, (x = d)$. The rule tells us that we can conclude $c = d$, since $c$ is a constant symbol which has not occurred earlier in the proof. But the sentence $c = d$ is not valid! It's true in some models but not in others (depending on whether $c$ and $d$ are interpreted to be the same element).

To fix this problem, we have to place an additional restriction on our proofs: If $c$ is a constant symbol introduced through an existential instantiation, then $c$ is not allowed to appear on the conclusion of the proof. This is an awkward kind of restriction, and I think it leads to the kinds of confusions you've expressed in the question and the comments. But unfortunately it seems some textbooks do take this approach. I've just made a small edit to Wikipedia to correct the error. Probably the whole page should be rewritten explaining various proof rules for existential quantifiers in various proof systems.

Here are some more elegant ways of handling existential elimination:

  • A sequent calculus system might have the bidirectional rule $\exists x\, \varphi \vdash \psi$ if and only if $\varphi \vdash \psi$, where $x$ does not occur free in $\psi$.

  • A natural deduction system might have the following rule: Suppose we can prove $\exists x\, \varphi(x)$, and after introducing the hypothesis $\varphi(y)$, where $y$ is a new variable, we can prove $\psi$, where $y$ does not occur free in $\psi$. Then discharge the hypothesis and conclude $\psi$.

  • A Hilbert style system might have the axiom $\exists x\, \varphi\rightarrow ( (\forall x\,(\varphi \rightarrow \psi)) \rightarrow \psi)$, where $x$ does not occur free in $\psi$.

Your book (by Adamowicz and Zbierski) uses a Hilbert style system, so let me show you how the last form of the rule is derived from their axioms for $\forall$ and the definition of $\exists$ as $\lnot \forall \lnot$.

Suppose we know $\exists x\, \varphi$. This means (1) $\lnot \forall x\, \lnot \varphi$. Suppose we also know (2) $\forall x\, (\varphi\rightarrow \psi)$, where $x$ does not occur free in $\psi$. We want to prove $\psi$. Toward a proof by contradiction, let's add a third assumption (3) $\lnot \psi$.

By "Propositional Calculus" axiom 3, $\forall x\,((\varphi\rightarrow \psi)\rightarrow (\lnot \psi\rightarrow \lnot \varphi))$, and by the "Distributivity of a Quantifier" axiom, $\forall x\, (\varphi\rightarrow \psi) \rightarrow \forall x\, (\lnot \psi\rightarrow \lnot \varphi)$. By Modus Ponens and our assumption (2), we have $\forall x\, (\lnot \psi\rightarrow \lnot \varphi)$. By "Distributivity of a Quantifier" again, $\forall x\,\lnot \psi \rightarrow \forall x\, \lnot \varphi$.

By the "Adding a Redundant Quantifier" axiom and assumption (3), since $x$ is not free in $\psi$, we have $\forall x\, \lnot \psi$. By Modus Ponens, $\forall x\, \lnot \varphi$. This is a contradiction to assumption (1).

Applying Theorem 9.11 (Reductio ad absurdem), we obtain $\{\exists x\, \varphi, \forall x\, (\varphi\rightarrow \psi)\}\vdash \psi$. Applying Theorem 9.1 (On deduction) twice, we obtain $\vdash \exists x\, \varphi\rightarrow ( (\forall x\,(\varphi \rightarrow \psi)) \rightarrow \psi)$.

Alex Kruckman
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  • thank you VERY much – Squirtle Jun 17 '20 at 04:09
  • What’s the intuition for the fact, that the rule becomes sound in the Hilbertsystem when one adds the condition that $x$ is not free in $\psi$?, or for that matter the Sequent calculus system. Apologies for asking a question on an old question, I’m just learning FOL proof systems. – Vivaan Daga Feb 22 '22 at 10:58
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    @VoiletFlame Suppose there exists an $x$ such that $\varphi(x)$. Call it $a$, so $\varphi(a)$ is true. And suppose we know that for all $x$, if $\varphi(x)$, then $\psi$. Applying this reasoning to $a$, since $\varphi(a)$ is true, we conclude that $\psi$ is true. – Alex Kruckman Feb 22 '22 at 12:36
  • Where did we make use of non free-ness? – Vivaan Daga Feb 22 '22 at 13:05
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    @VoiletFlame If $x$ was free in $\psi$, then $\varphi(a)$ would only imply $\psi(a)$, not $\psi$ itself. – Alex Kruckman Feb 22 '22 at 13:08
  • Ah! Yes I made a trivial mistake, thanks for your responses. – Vivaan Daga Feb 22 '22 at 13:10