how can i prove that? Prove that if $gcd(a, b)=d$, then $gcd(a^2, b^2 )=d^2$
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1Please tell us what you've tried and where you are stuck. That will help people give you help that is better suited to what you know and need. Otherwise your question is likely to be downvoted and/or closed. – rogerl Jun 11 '20 at 18:11
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This has been asked and answered before, e.g. here https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1286904/42969 – found with Approach0 – Martin R Jun 11 '20 at 18:12
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yes is $gcd(a, b)=d$ and $gcd(a^2, b^2)=d^2$ – Maria Andrea Jun 11 '20 at 18:27
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the questions are not similar – Maria Andrea Jun 11 '20 at 18:29
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Suppose $a=da_1$ and $b=db_1$ for coprime integers $a_1$ and $b_1$ and so $\gcd(a,b)=d$
We have $a^2=d^2a_1^2$ and $b^2=d^2b_1^2$, and since $\gcd(a_1,b_1)=1$ means (considering the fundamental theorem of arithmetic) $a_1$ and $b_1$ have no common prime divisor, then it also means that $a_1^2$ and $b_1^2$ have no common prime divisor and so $\gcd(a_1^2,b_1^2)=1$ and thus $\gcd(a^2,b^2)=d^2$

Anas A. Ibrahim
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