I have the following question:
Let $A,B$ be two subsets of a set $X$, and let $f : X → Y$ be a function. Show that $f(A ∩ B) ⊆ f(A) ∩ f(B)$. Is it true that the $⊆$ relation can be improved to $=$?
While I know that in these type of questions I should start by going back to the formal definition of everything stated and work from there I am having trouble stating these formally.
Usually a function can be written as ${\displaystyle \{(x,f(x)):x\in X\}}$ but how do I alter this to show that $x \subseteq A ∩ B$
Does the following work: ${\displaystyle \{(x,f(x)):x\in (A ∩ B) \subseteq X\}}$
In case it does, here is attempt:
${\displaystyle \{(x,f(x)):x\in (A ∩ B) \subseteq X\}}$
is equivalent to: ${\displaystyle \{(x,f(x)):x\in A \subseteq X \wedge x\in B \subseteq X\}}$
which in turn is equivalent to: ${\displaystyle \{(x,f(x)):x\in A \subseteq X\}} \wedge {\displaystyle \{(x,f(x)):x\in B \subseteq X\}}$
which is equivalent to $f(A) ∩ f(B)$
The biggest flaw in my work is that I am working as if I am showing equality, can someone guide me or give hints?