I want to prove that if a group of order $pq$ (where $p,q$ are primes) with $p>q$ is not abelian, then $p \equiv1$ mod $q$. I don't know if this is correct but I think I have a proof using characters:
$G$ is abelian if and only if $G'=[G,G]$ is trivial. Otherwise, it should be $|G'|=p$ or $|G'|=q$ or $|G'|=pq$. Let's see what happens. If $|G'|=p$, then $|G/G'|=q$ and therefore there are $q$ linear characters of $G$. Hence $\sum_{\chi\in Irr(G)}\chi(1)^2=|G|$ implies that $q+\sum_{\chi\in Irr(G),\chi(1)\neq 1}\chi(1)^2=pq$. We know that $\chi(1)|pq$ and so if $\chi(1)\neq 1$ it should be $\chi(1)=p$ or $\chi(1)=q$ or $\chi(1)=pq$. Since $q<p$, it is easily seen that for all $\chi$ (that are not of degree 1) we necessarily have $\chi(1)=q$. Therefore if $N$ is the number of characters with $\chi(1)=q$, we get $q+Nq^2=pq$ and therefore $p=Nq+1$, i.e $p \equiv 1$ mod $q$. With very similar reasoning we see that it cannot happen that $|G'|=q$ of $|G'|=pq$ and so if $G$ is not abelian, then $p \equiv1$ mod $q$.
Is the above correct? And if so, can you find a proof without using characters (maybe that's easy, but I really can't see it..)?