Let $(x_{n})_{n=0}^{\infty}$ be a sequence of points in a metric space $(X,d)$, and let $L\in X$. Then the following are equivalent
(a) $L$ is a limit point of $(x_{n})_{n=1}^{\infty}$
(b) There exists a subsequence $(x_{f(n)})_{n=1}^{\infty}$ of the original sequence $(x_{n})_{n=1}^{\infty}$ which converges to $L$.
My solution (Edit)
Let us prove the implication $(a)\Rightarrow(b)$ first.
Indeed, we have the following definition of limit point at hand:
for every $\varepsilon > 0$ and every $N\geq 1$ there is a natural $n\geq N$ such that $d(x_{n},L) < \varepsilon$.
Thus, if we choose $\varepsilon = 1$, there is a natural number $n_{1}\geq 1$ such that $d(x_{n_{1}},L) < 1$.
If we choose $\varepsilon = 1/2$, there is a natural number $n_{2} > n_{1}$ such that $d(x_{n_{2}},L) < 1/2$.
If we choose $\varepsilon = 1/3$, there is a natural number $n_{3} > n_{2}$ such that $d(x_{n_{3}},L) < 1/3$.
Indeed, for every $\varepsilon = 1/j$, there is a natural $n_{j} > n_{j-1} > \ldots > n_{1}$ such that $d(x_{n_{j}},L) < 1/j$.
Taking the limit, we conclude that $x_{f(j)}\to L$, where $f(j) = n_{j}$.
Now it remains to prove the converse implication $(b)\Rightarrow(a)$.