Let $p$ be a prime.
Let $f(x)=x^{p-1} + x^{p-2}+...+1$.
Let $g(x)$ = $f(x^{n})$ where n is any positive integer.
I know $f(x)$ is irreducible by Eisenstein's criterion.
Now i want to show $g(x)$ is irreducible:
If $g(x) = h(x)\cdot k(x) $,
Then $h(x) = (x^{n})^{k} + (x^{n})^{k-1} +....+1$,
And $k(x) = (x^{n})^{l} + (x^{n})^{l-1} +...+ 1$.
If any terms of $k(x)$ or$ h(x)$ is not of the form of $(x^{n})^{m}$ then when multiplied with 1 produces terms which is not in $ g(x).$ Then we can substitute $ x^{n}$ as $ y $ Which will produce that cyclotomic polynomial $ f(x)$ is reducible.
Which is a contradiction
Is my proof correct?