I am thinking on integrals of the form
$$ \int\limits_0^{\infty} \dfrac{ x^a }{(x+1)(x^2+1) } dx $$
First of all, we have to realize that integral only make sense if $a>2$.
If $a=0$, we can just apply partial fractions, so it is easy.
If $a=1$, then pretty much as before and same with $a=2$.
My question is, how about if $a=1/2$ or $a=3/2$, does the integral have closed form?