I am interested in understanding how Godel was able to prove his two celebrated theorems. I usually start with the most elementary book (something that perhaps a high school kid can understand) in order to gain perspective and then, I move on to more advanced books. Following that strategy, I read the book Godel's Proof written by Ernest Nagel, James R. Newman, and Douglas R. Hofstadter, and it did give me the basic idea involved in his proofs. However, it is far from a rigorous treatment just as the authors mention in that book.
After reading the book multiple times, I still have this unsettling feeling about Godel's proofs. He defines Godel numbers in a certain way, which now requires us to trust ourselves with the 'concept of numbers' which is itself, a part that is developed from the axioms.
Specifically, we have the number 0 defined as the empty set, the number 1 as the set containing the empty set etc. Using basic axioms of set theory, the 'concept of numbers' is developed and hence, have their own formulas describing as to exactly what a number is.
Note however, that the Godel numbering, is using 'the concept of numbers' and hence, is using these formulas, which in turn are developed from basic axioms, in order to number other formulas developed using the same axiom system. Can you really assign to each formula developed in the axiom system, a number, which itself is essentially a formula developed from the axioms of the same system? Isn't that circular logic?
I am perhaps getting this doubt because I lack the knowledge of the rigorous proof that Godel came up with. However, with the limited knowledge that I have, I'm not able to pull myself out of this unsettling feeling that there is circular logic in Godel's theorems.
I would greatly appreciate it if you can explain to me as to where my thinking is wrong.