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I have already solved this problem by writing the above sum as $$\frac{1}{1}+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+...+\frac{1}{2n+1}-\frac{1}{2}\left(1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+...+\frac{1}{n}\right)$$

Let z1= the first series and z2 be the second(inside brackets). We know that z1,z2 are not integers.

Therefore if the sum is an integer, $2\left\{z_1\right\}=\left\{z_2\right\}$ ({} denotes the fractional part)

This implies there is no new prime in the denominator of z1 which is not already present in z2.

$\Rightarrow $ There is no p such that $n\le p\le 2n+1$

Since this clearly contradicts Bertrand's postulate, the given sum is not an integer.

I wanted to know if there is anyway to solve it by induction.

Thanks ☺

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