As I was reading a book on the financial market micro-structure, I came across a simplification that I have not been able to prove.
The book states that $\sum_{\ell=1}^{Q}2G_0(\frac{1+\gamma}{\ell})\ell^\delta \approx 2G_0(1+\gamma)\frac{Q^\delta}{\delta}, \text{where } Q >> 1$ and $0<\delta<1$.
The first simplification is obvious: $\sum_{\ell=1}^{Q}2G_0(\frac{1+\gamma}{\ell})\ell^\delta = 2G_0(1+\gamma)\sum_{\ell=1}^{Q}\ell^{\delta-1}$.
I am not sure how $\sum_{\ell=1}^{Q}\ell^{\delta-1} \approx \frac{Q^\delta}{\delta}, \text{for where Q >> 1 and } 0<\delta<1$.
Any help will be extremely appreciated.