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If $a$ $\in$ $\mathbb R$ and $a \neq 1$ satisfies $a.a=a$, prove that $a=0$.

Though I find this expression intuitively right, I find it hard to prove it by only using the field axioms of $\mathbb R$.

cqfd
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    If $a\neq0$ you can multiply both sides by $\frac1a$. – ArtOfProblemSolving May 05 '20 at 15:06
  • The right tag is precalculus algebra –  May 05 '20 at 15:11
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    @Anonyme The goal is to prove it using the field axioms. Despite this being indistinguishable from actually solving the equation the usual way, it does qualify as abstract algebra. – Matt Samuel May 05 '20 at 15:12
  • Hi Swapnil: never use a title like "prove the following" or anything that is so uninformative that it could decsribe 100000 other questions. In this case, reproducing the question in the title does quite nicely (someone edited it for you.) – rschwieb May 05 '20 at 15:19
  • if $a.a=a$ then $a.(a-1)=0$. –  May 05 '20 at 15:37
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    @rschwieb Thanks for the information. I will keep that in mind. – Swapnil Dash May 05 '20 at 15:37
  • Such an $a$ is called idempotent. Do you know what the idempotents in a field are? – Geoffrey Trang May 05 '20 at 15:39
  • @RobertWolfe. But then you have to prove that if $cd = 0$ then either $c=0$ or $d=0$ which may or may not be harder to prove the original post. At any rate i don't think it is proven in any fundamentally simpler way (if $c\ne 0$ mulitply both sides but $c^{-1}$ so $d=c^{-1}\cdot 0$. But the we also have to prove the $c^{-1}\cdot 0 = 0$). – fleablood May 05 '20 at 15:47
  • @GeoffreyTrang No – Swapnil Dash May 05 '20 at 15:48
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    Well, once you are done with this problem you will have proven that in a field (as opposed to a ring or group) the idempotents are $1$ and $0$. But I don't think it's acceptable to refer to an advanced result you havent proven yet. Especially as the advanced result is basically the exact same thing as the problem. – fleablood May 05 '20 at 15:51
  • @fleablood Cancellation and $x.0=0$ is not terribly difficult. They are pretty typically part of the normal lectures and readings. What the OP is asking seems like an exercise. –  May 05 '20 at 15:54
  • @SwapnilDash I added a more general and more conceptual answer. If you follow the links you will learn much more about the essence of the matter. – Bill Dubuque May 05 '20 at 17:47

4 Answers4

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The most principled way to get at this result is to prove a lemma:

If $ab=0$ then $a=0$ or $b=0$.

This is equivalent to saying that if $ab = 0$ and $a\neq 0$ then $b=0$, which is more obvious to prove - with these conditions, multiply both sides of $ab=0$ by $1/a$ to get $b=0$. This essentially states that fields are integral domains, which is all you need to get the further results.

To apply this to the equation $a^2 = a$, you can rearrange this as finding the roots of a quadratic: $$a^2-a=0$$ and then you can factor the quadratic using the distributive law $$a(a-1) = 0$$ then apply the zero product law to see that $a=0$ or $a-1=0$, giving that the only two solutions are $a=0$ and $a=1$.

You can generalize this method to show that, in any integral domain, a polynomial of degree $n$ has at most $n$ roots - though there's a bit more machinery that comes into play when you want to get this generality.

Milo Brandt
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For each non-zero element $a$ in $\mathbb{R}$, there is an element $1/a \in \mathbb{R}$ such that

\begin{equation} a \left(\frac{1}{a} \right) = 1. \end{equation}

Now if $a = 0$, there's nothing to to prove. So, suppose $a \neq 0$ and $a \neq 1$. By the fact above, multiplying $1/a$ to both sides gives $a = 1$ which is a contradiction.

saru
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Presume you are given $a*a = a$.

Do a prove by contradiction and assume $a\ne 0$. Then prove that that means $a= 1$.

That would mean that if both $a*a = a$ and $a\ne 1$ we have no option but to conclude $a = 0$.

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So: $a*a = a$ and $a\ne 0$. The the field axioms says there exists a $a^{-1}$ so that $a^{-1}*a = 1$.

So $a^{-1}*(a*a) = a^{-1}*a$.

The LHS is $a^{-1}*(a*a) = (a^{-1}*a)*a = 1*a = a$. And the RHS is $a^{-1}*a = 1$.

So we have $a = 1$.

Thus, it must be that if $a*a = a$ and $a\ne 1$ that $a^{-1}$ can not exist. And the only element of a field that is allowed not to have a multiplicative inverse is $0$. So if $a*a =a$ and $a\ne 1$ we have no choice but to have $a=0$.

....

Now, just to be fussy and pedantic, we haven't actually proven that $a*a=a$ and $a\ne 1$ is possible at all; we haven't proven that $0*0 = 0$ after all; and although $0$ isn't required to have a multiplicative inverse, we haven't proven it doesn't. (But all of these are provable. We just didn't and do not have to do them here.)

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Alternatively, I will confess, my first thought was to use the ORDERED field definitions.

Either $a < 0$, in which case we can prove $a*a > 0$. (Basic proven proposition)

Or $a = 0$, in which case $0*0 =0$. (Basic proven, and fairly obvious, proposition)

Or $0 < a < 1$ in which case $a*a < 1*a$ (axiom: if $c>0$ and $x<y$ then $xc < yc$) so $a*a < a$ (Def of $1$).

Or $a=1$ in which case $1*1 = 1$ (Def of $1$)

Or $a > 1$ in which case $a > 1 > 0$ (Have to prove $1 > 0$. That is a standard exercise) and so $a*a > 1*a$ (the axiom above) and so $a*a > a$.

Of those 5 choices only $2$ of them work.

.... But.... this is a less powerful (although to my mind more obvious) proof because it requires an ordered field, whereas the result is actually true for all fields.

fleablood
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In a field $a\neq 0\,\Rightarrow\, a\,$ invertible, and $\,\bbox[5px,border:1px solid #c00]{\text{invertible $\,a\,$ are cancellable}\!}\,$ by scaling by $\,a^{-1}$

$$\begin{align} a\, x &\,=\, a\, y\\ \overset{\large \times\ a^{-1}}\Longrightarrow\ x &\,=\, y\end{align}\qquad$$

In particular the above implies that: $\ a\, a = a\, 1\,\Rightarrow\, a = 1,\,$ by cancelling invertible $\,a\neq 0$

Remark $ $ Another way to view it is that $\,x(x-1) = 0\,$ has only the two roots $\,x = 0,1\,$ because a nonzero polynomial over a field (or domain) has no more roots than its degree. Note carefully how that proof uses cancellation (in fact - as explained in the linked answer - this root bound property is equivalent to nonzero elements being cancellable in commutative rings, i.e. the ring is a domain).

Bill Dubuque
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