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"Let $V$ and $W$ be two vector spaces such that $\dim V > \dim W$ and let $T:V\longrightarrow W$ be a function between $V$ and $W$. If this is the case then $T$ can't be injective".

I know this statement is true if T is a linear map, but is it also true for any function $T$, linear or not?

surjective

2 Answers2

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(answer to version 2 of the question)

As stated, it is not true, even for linear maps. For instance take $V=\mathbb R^2$, $W=\mathbb R$, and $T(x,y)=0$.

(answer to version 3 of the question)

No. There exist bijections between $\mathbb R^n$ and $\mathbb R$, for instance.

Martin Argerami
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No, of course not. For example, there is a bijection

$$\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}^2$$

J. De Ro
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