Why is the upper bound of Euler's number $=3$?
I found that the upper bound of Euler's number can be evaluated as $1 +$ the lower bound (in other word the integer part). I do not understand why is it though.
Why is the upper bound of Euler's number $=3$?
I found that the upper bound of Euler's number can be evaluated as $1 +$ the lower bound (in other word the integer part). I do not understand why is it though.
\lim_{n \to \infty} \left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n < 3 $$ – Shiv Tavker May 01 '20 at 21:08