This is the Fourier transform $\hat{f}(y)$ of
$$
f(x) = x^{\alpha-1}\mathbb{1}_{\{x\geq 0\}}
$$
evaluated at $y=1/(2\pi)$. If $\alpha\in(0,1)$ then
$$
\begin{align*}
\hat{f}(y) &= \frac{\Gamma(\alpha)}{(2i\pi y)^{\alpha}}
\end{align*}
$$
which implies
$$
\int_0^\infty x^{\alpha-1}\,e^{-ix}\,\mathrm{d} x = i^{-\alpha}\,\Gamma(\alpha)
$$
Actually, another way of saying this is
$$
\Gamma(\alpha) = \int_0^{i\,\infty}z^{\alpha-1}e^{-z}\,\mathrm{d}z
$$
which is a formula I already saw somewhere (but I don't know where and how one proves it usually).
To prove the formula of the Fourier transform, one can first find the dependence in $y$ by a scaling argument and then use the fact that $\langle \hat{f}|\varphi\rangle = \langle f|\hat{\varphi}\rangle$ with $\varphi$ a Gaussian (for which we know the Fourier transform) to find the right constant.