Is $\mathcal{P}(A\cup B)=\mathcal{P}(A)\cup\mathcal{P}(B)$ true for all sets $A$ and $B$? If so, prove it. If not, give an example of sets $A$ and $B$ for which it is false and show why it is false for these sets.
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Asaf Karagila
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What have you tried? $A$ and $B$ can be rather small, so trying some small cases should suffice. – Ross Millikan Apr 29 '20 at 03:54
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yea i got it now cause i used a smaller set. was using quite large sets before and it was really tedious – Wesley Fung Apr 29 '20 at 04:11
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Suppose $A$ and $B$ are disjoint. Does $2^{a+b}=2^a+2^b-1$ for integers $a,b \ge 0$ ?

gandalf61
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@ε-δ Even if $A$ and $B$ are disjoint, $\mathcal{P}(A)$ and $\mathcal{P}(B)$ have one element in common ... – gandalf61 Apr 29 '20 at 09:01
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