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Is $\mathcal{P}(A\cup B)=\mathcal{P}(A)\cup\mathcal{P}(B)$ true for all sets $A$ and $B$? If so, prove it. If not, give an example of sets $A$ and $B$ for which it is false and show why it is false for these sets.

Asaf Karagila
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1 Answers1

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Suppose $A$ and $B$ are disjoint. Does $2^{a+b}=2^a+2^b-1$ for integers $a,b \ge 0$ ?

gandalf61
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