There is this exercise in my course note in which I have to prove following statements :
Assume $R$ is commutative and $1\neq 0$.
$(i)$ $R^\mathbb{N}$ is not finitely generated as an $R$-module
$(ii)$ $R^\mathbb{N}$ is finitely generated as an $R^\mathbb{N}$-module
The seconde statement $(ii)$ seemed obvious to me as every element in $R^\mathbb{N}$ can be obtained directly from $R^\mathbb{N}$ by multiplication with the multiplicative identity $1_{R^\mathbb{N}}$.
But the first statement $(i)$, I was not so sure about. By my understanding $R^\mathbb{N}$ is the set of $\{R_1,R_2,..\}$ Where every $R_i = R$ and $i \in \mathbb{N}$ and an element of $R^\mathbb{N}$ would be an $n$-tuple with elements of $R$ and $n \in \mathbb{N}$.
So for the proof I first assumed there was a finite generating set $S$ for the $R$-module $R^\mathbb{N}$. Since $S$ is finite there is always an element in $S$ that is an $n$-tuple, with the greatest $n$, that is there is no $(n + 1)$-tuple in $S$ and hence any $(n+1)$-tuple can't be obtained from $R$ and $S$.
Now to me the way an element in $R^\mathbb{N}$ is defined is vague as well as the real meaning of $\mathbb{N}$ in the exponent. I know $\mathbb{N}$ is used as the indexing set, but does that mean every natural number can be assigned to an element in $R^\mathbb{N}$ ? Also I never used the fact that $R$ is commutative and $1 \neq 0$...
Thank you for reading my question.