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Let $M,N$ be smooth manifolds (in $\mathbb{R}^n$), and let $f: M\rightarrow N$ be a local diffeomorphism.

Is it true that $f(M)$ is open in $N$?

Fix $q \in f(M)$: we have $p \in M$ such that $f(p)=q$. Since $f$ is a local diffeomorphism we can find $U \subseteq N$ open such that $f(U)$ is open, and it is an open set in $N$ around $q$ contained in $f(M)$. Hence $f(M)$ is open.

Is this correct?

Lilla
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1 Answers1

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Since $f$ is a local diffeomorphism there exists an open neighbourhood $U$ of $q$ such that $f:U\rightarrow V$ is a diffeomorphism, where $V=f(U)$. This implies that $V$ is an open neighbourhood of $p$ contained in $N=f(M)$ by surjectivity of $f$.

You can proceed in this way for any point $p\in N$, i.e. in $f(M)$, and hence by surjectivity you get that $f(U)$ is open.

Dadeslam
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