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I'm following this pdf from Edward Nelson about internal set theory: https://web.math.princeton.edu/~nelson/books/1.pdf

I'm at page 6. Only two axiom schemes have been introduced so far.

The transfer principle (writing here the dual version using existential quantifiers):

\begin{equation} \forall^{st}{t_1}...\forall^{st}{t_n} [ \exists{x} A \leftrightarrow \exists^{st}{x} A ] \end{equation}

where $A$ must be an internal formula with no other free variables than $x, t_1, ..., t_n$

And the idealization principle:

\begin{equation} \forall^{stfin}{x'}\exists{y}\forall{x}A \leftrightarrow \exists{y}\forall^{st}{x}A \end{equation}

where $A$ must be an internal formula.

The definition of a limited real number is: any real number whose absolute value is inferior or equal to a standard real.

The theorem 1 on page 6 is the following:

There does not exist $S_1$, $S_2$, $S_3$, $S_4$, or $S_5$ such that, for all $n$ in $\mathbb{N}$ and $x$ in $\mathbb{R}$, we have $n \in S_1 \leftrightarrow$ n is standard, $n \in S_2 \leftrightarrow n$ is nonstandard, $x \in S_3 \leftrightarrow x$ is limited, $x \in S_4 \leftrightarrow x$ is unlimited, or $x \in S_5 \leftrightarrow x$ is infinitesimal

I have no problem proving the parts about $S_1$ and $S_2$. However the part about $S_3$ seems less obvious. In the pdf, Nelson writes this as a proof: if $S_3$ existed we could take $S_1 = \mathbb{N} \cap S_3$. It seems to me that to make this reasoning work, you need to prove that an integer is standard if and only if it is limited. Hence my question: how do you prove that if an integer is limited, then it is standard, using only the transfer principle and the idealization principle?

2 Answers2

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$x$ unlimited by definition means it is greater in magnitude than all standard integers, so if $x$ is unlimited it is necessarily nonstandard. This proves that if $x$ is standard then $x$ is limited.

Suppose $x$ is limited, then by definition there exists a standard $y>0$ s.t. $\lvert x\rvert\leq y$. By Dual transfer the finite integer interval $[-y,y]$ is standard (it's a classical formula with fixed standard parameters $y$). The interval is standard and finite so it contains only standard elements.

n.b. this last point is probably introduced in your book sometime around this point as a basic IST concept, but you don't need standardization to prove it. Comment if you need help outlining a proof of it.

GPhys
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  • Thank you. Actually I had ended up realizing that what I was missing was just that: elements of finite standards set are standards. I figured out a proof but I don't think this fact was obvious, and it's only introduced 2 pages later in the pdf from Nelson. – John Smith Optional Apr 30 '20 at 11:35
  • Not sure what answer I must accept since they are both good. I might have to use a randomized algorithm to decide. – John Smith Optional Apr 30 '20 at 11:53
  • @JohnSmithOptional I don't think this fact is trivial, but it's important to understand so it's good you worked through it. – GPhys May 01 '20 at 21:33
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I offer two proofs that work over the natural numbers (as opposed to the integers) and show that if a natural number is limited then it is standard. They both avoid appeals to Theorem 2 (although you can prove Theorem 2 independently of Theorem 1), and the first one uses only Idealization and Transfer.

I. The first one is a variant of GPhys' proof. If a natural number $m$ is limited, then by definition $m < x$ for some standard $x \in \mathbb{R}$. By applying Transfer to $\forall x \in \mathbb{R}. \exists y \in \mathbb{N}. y = \left\lceil x \right\rceil$ we get that the ceiling of $x$ is a standard natural number, and we have $m < x \leq \left\lceil x \right\rceil$ . In what follows let $n$ denote $\left\lceil x \right\rceil$.

It's clear that there exists a finite set $\mathcal{F}$ such that $\forall y < n. \exists x \in \mathcal{F}. x = y$, namely $\mathcal{F} = \{ x \in \mathbb{N} \:|\: x < n \}$. But then by (the logical dual of) Idealization, we get that $\forall y < n. \exists^{st} x. x = y$. This is equivalent to $\forall y < n. \mathrm{st}(y)$. Since $m < n$, it follows that $m$ is standard.

II. Jumping ahead a little, you can prove this using external induction (Section 1.4, Exercise 4) on the formula $\forall m. m \leq n \rightarrow \mathrm{st}(m)$ as well. This variant proof occasionally comes in handy in constructive and type-theoretic analogues of Internal Set Theory.

The base case is $\forall m. m \leq 0 \rightarrow \mathrm{st}(m)$, which is true since $\mathrm{st}(0)$.

The inductive case allows us to assume that all $m \leq k$ are standard, and requires us to prove that all $n \leq k+1$ are standard. This amounts to proving that if $k$ is standard, then so is $k+1$. This is immediate by Transfer applied to $\forall x. \exists y. y = x+1$.

By the principle of external induction we get that for all standard $n \in \mathbb{N}$, it is the case that $\forall m. m \leq n \rightarrow \mathrm{st}(m)$. Setting $n=\left\lceil x \right\rceil$, we have that $m<n$ and so we can conclude that $m$ standard.

Keep in mind that external induction requires Standardization and Transfer (but not Idealization), so this second solution is definitely not the intended solution.

Dual idealization. Idealization says that if $\varphi$ is internal, we have the equivalence $$\forall^{st fin} \mathcal{F}. \exists y. \forall x \in \mathcal{F}. \varphi \:\leftrightarrow\: \exists y. \forall^{st} x. \varphi.$$ But if $A \leftrightarrow B$ then $\neg A \leftrightarrow \neg B$, so we also have $$\exists^{st fin} \mathcal{F}. \forall y. \exists x \in \mathcal{F}. \psi \:\leftrightarrow\: \forall y. \exists^{st} x. \psi$$ where $\psi$ is equivalent to $\neg \varphi$.

Z. A. K.
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  • Thanks. What I was missing was that elements of standards finite sets are standard. This idea is only introduced 2 pages later in the pdf. I think this is what you're getting at using dual idealization in I. I haven't read about Standardization yet but I will come back here to read your part II. Thanks! – John Smith Optional Apr 30 '20 at 11:47
  • Not sure what answer I must accept since they are both good. I might have to use a randomized algorithm to decide. – John Smith Optional Apr 30 '20 at 11:53
  • I considered unpacking the relevant idealization part of proving standard finite sets have standard elements, but I thought maybe it was more pedagogical to leave that fact packed together and phrase the proof to rely on it. – GPhys May 01 '20 at 21:48
  • As an aside, proving OP's question was slightly less trivial than I assumed it was; most of the proofs that came to me immediately used machinery too powerful for the question. – GPhys May 01 '20 at 21:49
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    Indeed. I suspect that if Nelson had time to finish his book, many of these exercises would have been expanded upon and/or reordered. – Z. A. K. May 01 '20 at 21:53