Assume that $\lambda_1$ and $\lambda_2$ are distinct eigenvalues of the $n\times n$ matrix $A$. Prove that an $n\times 1$ vector $x$, which is not a null vector, cannot be an eigenvector of both $\lambda_1$ and $\lambda_2$.
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3Please show your attempt. – sammy gerbil Apr 25 '20 at 05:49
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See also https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/29371/how-to-prove-that-eigenvectors-from-different-eigenvalues-are-linearly-independe – Arnaud D. Apr 27 '20 at 08:19
2 Answers
Suppose for contradiction that $\vec{x}$ is an eigenvector of both $\lambda_1$ and $\lambda_2$. Then we have $A\vec{x}= \lambda_1 \vec{x}$ and $A\vec{x} = \lambda_2 \vec{x}$. So $\lambda_1 \vec{x} = \lambda_2 \vec{x}$. Multiplying both sides by $\vec{x}^*$ we obtain:
$\lambda_1 \vec{x} (\vec{x}^*) = \lambda_2 \vec{x} (\vec{x}^*)$. (i)
Note that $\vec{x}(\vec{x}^*) = ||\vec{x}||^2 \neq 0$ as $\vec{x}$ is non-zero. Multiplying both sides of (i) by $\frac{1}{||\vec{x}||^2}$ we obtain $\lambda_1=\lambda_2$. This is a contradiction as $\lambda_1$ and $\lambda_2$ are distinct. It follows that there cannot be a non-zero eigenvector (in this space) possessing multiple eigenvalues. Here $\vec{x}^*$ denotes the complex conjugate of $\vec{x}$. If the entries of $\vec{x}$ are real, then $\vec{x}^*$ is the transpose of $\vec{x}$.

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If
$Ax = \lambda_1 x, \tag 1$
and
$Ax = \lambda_2 x, \tag 2$
then
$0 = Ax - Ax = \lambda_1x - \lambda_2x = (\lambda_1 -\lambda_2)x, \tag 3$
if
$\lambda_1 \ne \lambda_2, \tag 4$
so that
$\lambda_1 -\lambda_2 \ne 0, \tag 5$
then from (3),
$x = 0; \tag 6$
but this is precluded by the hypothesis
$x \ne 0; \tag 7$
we conclude that (1) and (2) cannot both bind.
Note added in Edit; Saturday 25 April 2020 8:38 PM PST: It is worth noting that the preceding demonstration does not require the entries of $A$ or $x$, or $\lambda_1$ and $\lambda_2$, to take values in $\Bbb Q$, $\Bbb R$, or $\Bbb C$, or indeed in any field. What does appear to be necessary is that $\lambda_1 - \lambda_2 \ne 0$ can be cancelled from both sides of (3), yielding (5). So for example if we are working over an integral domain $D$, with $A \in M_n(D)$ etc. then the argument succeeds; this is true even if $D$ does not support an inner product on vectors such as $x$. Such would be the case if for instance $D = \Bbb F_p$, the finite field with prime $p$ elements, and $n = p$. End of Note.

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