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Consider the following lemma:

Lemma

Let $A\subset \mathbb R$ be an $F_\sigma$ set,then $\exists f:\mathbb R\to \mathbb R$ such that $D(f)=A$.

Proof: $A=\bigcup\limits_{n\in \mathbb N} A_n$ where $A_n$ are all closed.

Define $f_n:=\large\chi_{A_n}$,characteristic function $A_n$.Define $f(x)=\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} 2^{-n}f_n(x)$ and this function will satisfy the requirement.

This proof was given in stackexchange.But I cannot figure out why $x\in A$ should imply $x\in D(f)$.Can someone help me out of this?The same stack exchange article says that $\exists y$ arbitrarily close to $x\in A$ such that $f_n(x)\neq f_n(y)$ but I do not get it.What if $(x-\epsilon,x+\epsilon)\subset A_n$ for some $n\in \mathbb N$ and for some $\epsilon>0$.

Hanul Jeon
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