Let ${I}^{n}$ denote the $n$-dimensional cube, $\partial{I}^{n}$ be its boundary and ${S}^{n}$ denote the $n$-dimensional unit sphere.
Now for a pointed space $(X,x_{0})$ the $n^{th}$$homotopy$ $group$ of $X$ is :
- The set of homotopy classes of maps $f:({I}^{n},\partial{I}^{n}) \rightarrow (X,x_{0})$ such that the boundary $\partial{I}^{n}$ goes to the basepoint $x_{0}$ where a homotopy $f_{t}$ satisfies $f_{t}(\partial{I}^{n})=x_{0} \ \forall \ t\in[0,1]$.
Alternatively;
- The set of homotopy classes of maps $g:({S}^{n},s_{0}) \rightarrow (X,x_{0})$.
Now this holds as $I^{n}\backslash\partial{I}^{n}$ is homeomorphic to $S^{n}$.
This is where I struggle. Is it true to say that from the second definition we would send $s_{0}$ to $x_{0}$ ( hence one point to one point) but in the first we would be sending the set of boundary points to a unique point $x_{0}$. This many-to-one and one-to-one difference in the mapping defined in the first and the second definition respectively, makes it hard for me to see that the two are alternative to each other since the difference in mapping makes it seem like two contrasting processes, even if I understand that it is an obvious consequence from the homeomorphism between the $I^{n}\backslash\partial{I}^{n}$ and $S^{n}$. It would seem more natural for me if in definition 1 the mapping was from $f:({I}^{n}\backslash\partial{I}^{n},i_{0}) \rightarrow (X,x_{0})$ is that not possible?