Why when writing a congruence relation, do we have to add $\pmod{m}$ at the end. I understand it's notation, but $b$ does not have to be equal to $a\bmod b$ if I understand correctly. The definition states that "$a$ and $b$ are said to be congruent modulo $m$, if their difference $a − b$ is an integer multiple of $m$." If that is true, then one can write $a\equiv b \pmod{m}$
So, for example, if we let $a=10$ and $m = 2$, then the set $b_n$, where $b_n$ contains all the integers that satisfy $a\equiv b\pmod{m}$ contains $2,4,6,8\dots$ But $10\bmod 2 = 0$. So why do we write $a\equiv b\pmod{m}$ to indicate a congruence relation? Thanks, any help is greatly appreciated.