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Suppose that $\mu$ is a Radon measure on $X$ such that $\mu(\{x\})=0$ for all $x\in X$, and $A$ is a Borel set satisfying $0<\mu(A)<\infty$. I am trying to show that for any $\alpha$ such that $0<\alpha<\mu(A)$, there exists a Borel set $B\subset A$ such that $\mu(B)=\alpha$.

I tried using inner and outer regularity of $\mu$ but I probably did not do the right estimations so I'm stuck. I said that given $\varepsilon>0$, there exists a compact set $K$ such that $K\subset A$ and $\mu(A\setminus K)<\varepsilon$. For each $x\in K$, there exists an open set $U_{x}\subset X$ such that $x\in U_{x}$ and $\mu(U_{x})<\varepsilon$ (since $\mu(\{x\})=0$). Then $K$, being compact, is covered by finitely many of these open sets, say $U_{x_{1}},\ldots,U_{x_{m}}$. Since $K\subset A$, we also have $K\subset (\bigcup_{i=1}^{m}U_{x_{i}}\cap A)\subset A$. The middle set is a Borel set. But I don't see what I can say about its measure in terms of $\varepsilon$. Moreover, I haven't brought $\alpha$ into the picture.

cyc
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  • Some references, but not a solution, are given here: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/31962/how-to-split-an-integral-exactly-in-two-parts/31967#31967 –  Apr 17 '13 at 00:13
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    Maybe I should add a comment about another approach I took. That was to use a Zorn's lemma argument on the collection ${C:C\subset A,C;\text{is open in the relative topology on};A,\mu(C)\leq\alpha}$. It seemed to work (I'm not totally sure) but in any case, I'm trying to prove it differently. – cyc Apr 17 '13 at 00:35

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Note that your Radon measure is atomless. Hence you can use the argument sketched here.

hot_queen
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