Let $f : X → Y$ be a map of topological spaces. Show that $f$ is continuous if and only if $f\left(\bar{A}\right) \subset \overline{f(A)}$ for all $A \subset X$.
Seems to me that $\subset$ should be $\subseteq$. Taking example $X = Y = \mathbb{R}$ with usual topology, $f(x) = x$ and $A = [0,1]$ gives $f(\bar{A}) = \overline{f(A)}$. Have I missed something?
Do you think it should be $\subseteq$ in this case? (In meaning, not notation)
– user27182 Apr 19 '20 at 17:38