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My attempt: Consider $$g(c)=\int_{c}^{c+1/2}f(x)dx$$g is continuous as $$g(c)=\int_{0}^{c+1/2}f(x)dx-\int_{0}^{c}f(x)dx$$ where both are continuous. Thus now we can use IVT to show such $c$ exists. Assume that $g(c)>1/2\int_{0}^{1}f(x)dx$ for all $c\in [0,1/2]$, but then $g(0)+g(1/2)>\int_{0}^{1}f(x)dx$ which is a contradiction. Thus $ g(c)\leq 1/2\int_{0}^{1}f(x)dx$ for some $c\in [0,1/2]$ if the equality holds from $c=1/2$ then it also holds for $c=0$. Otherwise by IVT we know such c exists.

Is this proof correct? Are there any cleaner solutions?

Sorfosh
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