There is a section titled Inner products and norms in my lecture notes on the Fourier series that has been confusing me (the course I'm taking is Higher Several Variable Calculus). The notes go something like this:
- They let $V$ be a vector space and define what an inner product on $V$ is.
- They then show that $\mathbb{R}^n$, a vector space, "admits" the inner product $$\langle \mathbf{u}, \mathbf{v} \rangle = \sum_{i=1}^n u_i v_i$$ for $\mathbf{u} = (u_1, ..., u_n), \mathbf{v} = (v_1, ..., v_n) \in \mathbb{R}^n$.
- They show that the vector space $C[a, b]$ consisting of all continuous functions defined on the interval $[a, b]$ also admits the inner product $$\langle f, g \rangle = \int_a^b f(x)g(x) \ dx$$ for $f, g \in C[a, b]$.
- They mention that the property of orthogonality still applies to those functions in $C[a, b]$.
- They then do something similar with norms on vector spaces.
Now I have practically no knowledge of abstract algebra besides a rudimentary understanding of vector spaces. Showing that $\mathbb{R}^n$ and $C[a, b]$ admit inner products and norms is all well and good — my question is: what's the point? Is it not sufficient just to show that $C[a, b]$ is a vector space to do things like perform vector decomposition and determine Fourier coefficients?