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Let p be an odd prime, where a,b are integers such that $p\nmid a$ and $p\nmid b$. Show that the congruence $(x^2-a)(x^2-b)(x^2-ab) \equiv 0\bmod p$ is always solvable.

I know that (a/p) and (b/p) is equivalent to $(-1)^{(p^2-1)/8}$

Gerry Myerson
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Amen
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2 Answers2

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The Legendre symbol $(\frac{\cdot}{p})$ is the multiplicative function defined on the integers so that $(\frac{a}{p})=0$ when $p|a$. Otherwise, $(\frac{a}{p})=1$ when the congruence $x^2-a\equiv 0\;\text{mod}\;p$ is solvable but $(\frac{a}{p})\equiv-1$ when said congruence is not solvable. To see the originally posted congruence has a solution it suffices to show that at least one of $(\frac{a}{p}),(\frac{b}{p}),(\frac{ab}{p})$ equals $1$. If $(\frac{a}{p})=(\frac{b}{p})=-1$ then $(\frac{ab}{p})=(\frac{a}{p})\cdot(\frac{b}{p})=1$.

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Hint:

If $(a/p)=-1$ and $(b/p)=-1,$ then $(ab/p)=(a/p)(b/p)=1$.

J. W. Tanner
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