If I have A⟺B, does that means A is sufficient for B to occurs and B
is necessary for A to occurs?
Yes it means this, but it means more than this.
If it only meant this, there would be no difference between bi-implication and simple implication.
Simple implication ( A $\rightarrow$ B) already means by itself that A is sufficient for B and B is necessary for A.
Saying that A is sufficient for B to be true means than $ A \rightarrow B$ is true. ( Which implies, by itself, that B is necessary for A to be true).
Saying that A is necessary for B to be true means that if A is not true, B is not true either , that is : $\neg A \rightarrow \neg B$.
Now, suppose you want the expression $(A \iff B)$ to mean : " A is both sufficient and necessary for B to be true", you will define this expression as follows :
$$(A \iff B)\equiv_{Df_1} [( A \rightarrow B) \land (\neg A \rightarrow \neg B)]$$.
- But, contraposition law ( with double negation) allows you to rephrase the second part of the conjunction as : $(\neg\neg B \rightarrow \neg\neg A) \equiv (B\rightarrow A)$.
So your first definition is equivalent to :
$$(A \iff B)\equiv_{Df_{2}} [( A \rightarrow B) \land (B \rightarrow A)]$$.
This shows that : saying "A is both sufficient and necessary for B" is equivalent to saying that "(1) A is sufficient for B and (2) B is sufficient for A".
- In fact , with contraposition, one can show that $(A\iff B)$ means equivalently :
(1) each sentence is sufficient for the other
OR
(2) each sentence is necessary for the other
OR
(3) each is both necessary and sufficient for the other.