I'm attempting to prove that the above statement is true, but am having a bit of trouble.
So far I have
$qk = yz$
$qj = xy$
I'm not really sure to go from here, but I tried the following
I can then rearrange for $z,x$
$x = \frac {qk}{y}$
$z = \frac {qj}{y}$
And then combine such that
$xz = \frac {q^2(kj)}{y}$
If it wasn't for the y on the denominator, the proof would be finished, but I can't really see a way to get rid of it, which of course makes me think I've gone around doing this the wrong way.
What would be a better way to prove this statement?