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Today I read about rencontres number, but I don't exactly understand some part of the proof of the formula. Can someone explain?

One of those is the limit $$ !n=n(!(n-1))+(-1)^n \, \Rightarrow \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{!n}{n!} =\frac{1}{e} $$ The other thing is how the formula is proved for $n$ where n is the amount of units in the sequence, but when we apply it, we use $[\frac{(n-k)!}{e}]$.

I tried googling the explanation, but I haven't found anything simple enough for myself to understand.

Gareth Ma
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Dknot
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1 Answers1

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For the limit, notice

$$!n=n(!(n-1))+(-1)^n$$

$$=n((n-1)(!(n-2))+(-1)^{n-1})+(-1)^n$$

$$=\ldots$$

$$=[1](-1)^n + [n](-1)^{n-1} + [n(n-1)](-1)^{n-2} + \ldots + [n(n-1)\cdots 1](-1)^{0}$$

$$=\Sigma_{i=0}^n [\frac{n!}{i!}](-1)^i$$

$$=n!\Sigma_{i=0}^n \frac{(-1)^i}{i!}$$

And the part after $n!$ is (taylor series) definition of $\frac{1}{e}$

In fact, you can carry on after getting the series representation of $!n$.

$$!n=n!\Sigma_{i=0}^n \frac{(-1)^i}{i!}$$

$$|\frac{n!}{e}-!n|=|\Sigma_{i=n+1}^\infty(-1)^i\frac{n!}{i!}|$$

$$=|\frac{1}{n+1}-(\frac{1}{(n+1)(n+2)} - \frac{1}{(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)}) - \cdots|$$

$$< \frac{1}{n+1}$$

Therefore for $n>0$, $!n$ is the closest integer to $\frac{n!}{e}$

Source (I didn't derive this): https://math.stackexchange.com/a/83472/623901

Method 3 (inclusion-exclusion):

Gareth Ma
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    now that I have looked at your answer, I actually realized the approximation is not $e$, but $e^{-1}$, now that makes perfect sense. Thanks for helping me clear that confusion. – Dknot Apr 01 '20 at 08:23