I am trying to understand a part of the following proof.
Prove that $(1)$ and $(2)$ are equivalent:
$(1)$ $\lim_{x \to c}f(x)=f(c)$
$(2)$ $f$ is continuous at $c$.
I understood the proof of $(1) \Rightarrow (2)$. My question is about a part of the proof of $(2) \Rightarrow (1)$.
Definition
Definition of continuity I am using is as follows.
A function $f:E \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is continuous at $c$ if for all $\varepsilon \gt 0 $, there exists $\delta \gt 0$ such that if $\left | x-c \right| \lt \delta$ and $x \in E$, then $\left | f(x)-f(c) \right| \lt \varepsilon$.
Proof
Suppose that $\lim_{x \to c}f(x)=f(c)$. For any $\varepsilon \gt 0$, there exists $\delta \gt 0$, such that for all $x \in (a,b)$ satisfying $0 \lt \left | x-c \right| \lt \delta$, we have $ \left | f(x)-f(c) \right| \lt \varepsilon$.
If $\left | x-c \right| = 0$, then $x=c$. In this case $ \left | f(c)-f(c) \right| = 0 \lt \varepsilon$.
Hence for all $x \in (a,b)$ with $\left | x-c \right| \lt \delta$, we have $ \left | f(x)-f(c) \right| \lt \varepsilon$. Thus $f$ is continuous at $c$.
$Q.E.D$
Question
Why do we need the part of the proof which is blocked? And why does it eliminate the need for $0 \lt \left | x-c \right|$ ?
Thank you for your time.